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Death before the age of accountability

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AndThisGospel

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AndThisGospel said:
Principle: God sees and describes Himself as doing what He does not prevent.

"The anger of the Lord was aroused against Israel and He moved David . . . to . . . number Israel and Judah (2 Sam. 24:2).
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BTW, if you read the context, David sinned by numbering Israel. That's why He confessed to God:

2 Sam 24:10 Now David’s heart troubled him after he had numbered the people. So David said to the LORD, “I have sinned greatly in what I have done. But now, O LORD, please take away the sin of Your servant, for I have acted very foolishly.”
 
StefanM

StefanM

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AndThisGospel said:
There's no interpretation. You stated that God desired sin. The Bible doesn't substantiate your claim. Therefore you are making God the author of sin.
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"Author of sin" terminology is just from the Westminster Confession and doesn't matter.

What the Bible substantiates is a matter of interpretation.
 
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Yeshua1

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There
AndThisGospel said:
Bad analogy.....God didn't create a bomb....Lucifer, a perfect being, became a bomb. That's not God's fault.

God took the chance when He decided to create free-will beings in His image and likeness. He knew that angelic perfection would fail, but He created him anyway. Why?
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Thereis no chance/fate with God, as He is always in sovereign control over all events!
 
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AndThisGospel

Member
AndThisGospel said:
BTW, if you read the context, David sinned by numbering Israel. That's why He confessed to God:

2 Sam 24:10 Now David’s heart troubled him after he had numbered the people. So David said to the LORD, “I have sinned greatly in what I have done. But now, O LORD, please take away the sin of Your servant, for I have acted very foolishly.”
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Did God actually cause David to sin? "He (God) moved David . . . to . . . number Israel and Judah (2 Sam. "24:2). It seems so, or was God merely assuming the blame for David's sinning? I say the latter.

You see if God had not created Lucifer then David wouldn't have sinned because 1] David wouldn't have had a sin nature and 2] there wouldn't have been a devil to tempt him. So God assumes the blame as if He had David number Israel.

 
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Yeshua1

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AndThisGospel said:
Calling God insane? Hmmm?

Anyway, let's say you're God, and you want to create free-will beings, but because your creation is based on "free will" you run the risk that it could turn against you. What do you do?
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No risk, as only God in ultimate sense has full free will!
 
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Yeshua1

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AndThisGospel said:
That's totally different than saying God created Satan. Totally!

God created Lucifer...He was the seal of perfection in the day that he was created. God doesn't create junk. He, God, created free-will beings. He didn't create robots.

Lucifer was created, as was Adam, in God's image after His likeness.
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And they both freely chose to sin, and theLord was still in sovereign control!
 
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AndThisGospel

Member
AndThisGospel said:
Did God actually cause David to sin? "He (God) moved David . . . to . . . number Israel and Judah (2 Sam. "24:2). It seems so, or was God merely assuming the blame for David's sinning? I say the latter.

You see if God had not created Lucifer then David wouldn't have sinned because 1] David wouldn't have had a sin nature and 2] there wouldn't have been a devil to tempt him. So God assumes the blame as if He had David number Israel.
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Who really caused David to sin?

"Now Satan stood up against Israel and moved David to number Israel" (1 Chron. 21:1)
 
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Yeshua1

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AndThisGospel said:
Yes, He is sovereign, but He didn't desire that they sin. They sinned because they had free-wills.
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God choosed and deterned to us their Falls fo His greater glory, corect?
As the Cross of Christ was already in mind of God, as part o fHis divine Plan, so that greater good would in the end come out of even their Falsl?
 
StefanM

StefanM

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AndThisGospel said:
No, the Bible can explain itself as long as one doesn't go outside it....
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The very act of reading the Bible is interpretive. Trying to figure out what the words mean is interpretive. Trying to understand how the words relate to other words in the text is interpretive.

That's the case with any written document, and the Bible is no exception. It's just rather challenging to do, as it is a collection of documents from different time periods, written by different authors with different backgrounds.

Case in point: what does the Bible mean by "faith"? James and Paul use the same word differently. So we have to interpret even if we never leave the text.
 
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