I haven't said. You just can't use the Psalms to justify that form of Christian worship..
Of course I can, because I did. Don't just pontificate and tell me I can't do something. Tell me why you won't allow it.
The early church didn't use instruments.
Prove it. Give me a quote from the early church fathers.
They weren't used in the synagogues.
Prove it.
Their use isn't described or prescribed in the NT.
Instruments are in the NT in many passages.
1. Trumpet or trump (same Greek word), 11 times--Matt. 24:311, 1 Co. 14:8, 1 Cor. 15:52, 1 Thess. 4:16, Heb. 12:19, Rev. 1:10, 4:1, 8:2 & 6, 8:13, 9:14.
--Funny (peculiar), God is going to call us to Heaven (eternal worship in the New Jerusalem) with trumpets, but you want to forbid them in church.
2. Harp (Gr. kithara, the ancestor of the guitar)--1 Cor. 14:7, Rev. 5:8, 14:2, 15:2 (all positive references).
3. You conveniently ignored the Greek term given previously (can't find which post) given, psallo, which is defined in my favorite lexicon, Fribergs' Anlex: "strictly
strike the strings of an instrument; hence
sing to the accompaniment of a harp; in the NT
sing praises." It occurs 4 times, all positively: Rom. 15:9, 1 Cor. 14:15, Eph. 5:19, James 5:13.
4. We have a "pipe" (flute) in 1 Cor. 14:7.
In other words, musical instruments occur in 20 different passages, and every single reference is positive. Yet you want musical instruments to be a negative thing. That.'s not following the Bible.
The Eastern church shuns them to this day.
Are you actually saying on the Baptist Board that the dead, formalistic "Eastern church" (not really a Biblcial "church" but a man-made denomination) is the example for Baptist churches?
In my very first post I said:
"Commandments" in the Psalms to use musical instruments are more properly interpreted in the same way that the commandments to kill bulls and sheep and to sprinkle their blood are interpreted.
Yes, you simply stated it and never proved it Scripturally. I'm a Baptist, and my favorite Baptist distinctive is, "The Bible as the sole rule of faith and practice. So prove this statement from the Bible, if you please.
As are "grammatical imperatives" (LOL) to worship with sacrifice and burnt offering. David instituted the use of instruments in the tabernacle, and wrote many of the Psalms for tabernacle worship. So the Psalms were considered part of the law. John 10:34. John 15:25
The general term for the OT was "Law," but when they were specific, the people of Israel separated the OT into Torah, history, poetry and wisdom, and prophets. Your point does not stand scrutiny.
You want to forbid things the Bible does not forbid. Way back in Post #21 I said this, and you never answered it (probably because it is unanswerable):
Post 21: On the side of musical instruments in the church, we have two passages instructing us to sing psalms (Eph. 5:19, Col. 3:16). I find it patently ridiculous that we are instructed to sing Psalms--one of which is all about musical instruments (Ps. 150), and others which enjoin instruments (33, 43, etc., etc.) and yet not play the instruments they speak of.
Apologies to agedman for spending this time on instruments rather than strictly the OP, but I think it is relevant since you stated something about a service without instruments in Post 45 of yours.
And the regulative principle is what is behind that, whether you make the statement or Aaron does.