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Does God always get what he ultimately wants?

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JesusFan

Well-Known Member
What Jesusfan is referring to (I think :)) is the world system now is ruled by Satan. Just turn on the news and this is clearly seen. But in the Millennium Kingdom, Jesus will return physically to earth and rule with a rod of iron (sin will not be tolerated at all). At this time Satan will be bound and cannot rule anything for 1000 years, or tempt anyone to sin.


exactly what I meant to say!

See some arms and cals can "play nice" here on BB!
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
I hold to God having a Determined/direct Will, and a permissive/allowing Will BOTH for His purposes to accomplish what He desires to be domne...

Does Luke hold to God having just a single Will than, that He predetermines all things directly?

Your guess is as good as mine. He quotes men like Edwards who believe what you just described, but then he makes comments which seem to contradict that view.

I've yet to see Luke show any real distinction between what God actively decrees and what he only permissively allows. Luke has been known to say that God doesn't "just permit" anything, but that he "brings it to pass," which clearly gives the impression he holds to an active view of God determination of even the "evil things." Now, he wouldn't call the things God does evil, obviously, but explains it by saying that because God does the deed with a pure motive, it is not evil.

By that line of reasoning, I think Luke believes that God killed his Son (active/ not passive), but because He did it with a good motive, its not evil. I assume he'd say the same thing about other murders such as those of killers like Jeffery Dahmer, but I'm not sure on that. I only say that because when the Dahmer issue is raised his rebuttal is to point to God's active part in the killing of Christ, which would lead one to believe they are to be equated regarding God's active decree.

I'm sure he'll accuse me of misrepresenting him and get really upset with me, but you can read through his posts for yourself and judge if what I've said seems accurate.
 
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quantumfaith

Active Member
Your guess is as good as mine. He quotes men like Edwards who believe what you just described, but then he makes comments which seem to contradict that view.

I've yet to see Luke show any real distinction between what God actively decrees and what he only permissively allows. Luke has been known to say that God doesn't "just permit" anything, but that he "brings it to pass," which clearly gives the impression he holds to an active view of God determination of even the "evil things." Now, he wouldn't call the things God does evil, obviously, but explains it by saying that because God does the deed with a pure motive, it is not evil.

By that line of reasoning, I think Luke believes that God killed his Son (active/ not passive), but because He did it with a good motive, its not evil. I assume he'd say the same thing about other murders such as those of killers like Jeffery Dahmer, but I'm not sure on that. I only say that because when the Dahmer issue is raised his rebuttal is to point to God active part in the killing of Christ, which would lead one to believe they are to be equated regarding God's active decree.

I'm sure he'll accuse me of misrepresenting him and get really upset with me, but you can read through his posts for yourself and judge if what I've said seems accurate.

:thumbs::thumbs::thumbs::thumbs:
 

preacher4truth

Active Member
Your guess is as good as mine. He quotes men like Edwards who believe what you just described, but then he makes comments which seem to contradict that view.

I've yet to see Luke show any real distinction between what God actively decrees and what he only permissively allows. Luke has been known to say that God doesn't "just permit" anything, but that he "brings it to pass," which clearly gives the impression he holds to an active view of God determination of even the "evil things." Now, he wouldn't call the things God does evil, obviously, but explains it by saying that because God does the deed with a pure motive, it is not evil.

By that line of reasoning, I think Luke believes that God killed his Son (active/ not passive), but because He did it with a good motive, its not evil. I assume he'd say the same thing about other murders such as those of killers like Jeffery Dahmer, but I'm not sure on that. I only say that because when the Dahmer issue is raised his rebuttal is to point to God's active part in the killing of Christ, which would lead one to believe they are to be equated regarding God's active decree.

I'm sure he'll accuse me of misrepresenting him and get really upset with me, but you can read through his posts for yourself and judge if what I've said seems accurate.

I believe you misrepresent Luke2427 here again, as you've done in time past in your adding brackets in "quoting" him before.

- Peace
 

Robert Snow

New Member
Does God always get what he ultimately wants?
Sometimes He does not get what He wants.

O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you that kill the prophets, and stone them which are sent unto you, how often would I have gathered your children together, even as a hen gathers her chickens under her wings, and you would not!

However, "ultimately" the Jews will receive Him as their Messiah but not without great persecution during the Great Tribulation.
So God IS sovereign and He will work all His purposes, but not apart from the human will. It is a mystery how He is able to do this, but He does.




If that's what your OP is about, it will fail miserably because no one on this board is going to admit God is not sovereign and it's not your job to try and make them admit something that isn't true.

Great posting Amy! Poor old Luke just doesn't get it.
 

Luke2427

Active Member
You really should stop throwing accusations around.




Actually, God has allowed Satan to be ruler of this world for the time being.
2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

He rules at God's permission and does what God has always intended for him to do.

He cannot afflict Job without permission and when he does GOD gets the credit for it because God was simply using Satan to do His ultimate will.

Sovereignty means that God is bringing to pass his purposes in every event exactly as he always intended to do without fail.

Do you believe this?
 

Luke2427

Active Member
I sort of catch what you are saying, but I believe it falls short, and the passage you use doesn't prove he rules this world.

Just because Satan blinds somes minds in no way does indicate he rules this world. Jesus rules this world, all things are subject to Him. Blinding minds falls well short of proving him ruler here.

Further thoughts on this:

"...-through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,
who is at the right hand of God, having gone into heaven, after angels and authorities and powers had been subjected to Him." 1 Peter 3:21b-22


We see Jesus in Sovereign control of Satan. Keep in mind God also blinds lest some believe, and apparently He uses Satan in doing so: "He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them." John 12:40

Yes, this is a very good point.

God blinds the eyes of men. He does it via Satan's wicked hands.

Satan is God's devil and just like all that has ever or will ever exist- he serves the purposes of God to a tee.

Anyone who denies this, denies the Sovereignty of God.

I find it odd that so many are so willing to give Satan authority in a half heart-beat, and are so willing to strip God of His total Sovereignty for the sake of "free-will."

All things are going according to the counsel of His will; "In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:" Ephesians1:11

Jesus simply uses Satan according to His own will. Jesus rules this world.

Exactly.
 

Luke2427

Active Member
Your statements and questions are of a nature that tend to trap. It is like asking someone have you stopped beating your wife, but I will give you my understanding on the issue any way. I have to say I disagree with you on the very premise of your argument. First off the bible never says God is Sovereign although I do hold that He is I do not hold to the same interpretation you are proposing to the word Sovereign in regards to God.


Finally an honest adherent to this nameless theology.

You ACTUALLY ADMIT that you do not believe the Bible teaches that God is sovereign.

Whether they want to admit it or not, you represent the beliefs of the others who, like you, have no nameable systematic theology.

Thank you for your honesty.

Now with that let me answer your questions;

Did God PURPOSE everything that ever happens?

Absolutely not!

Wonderful!

That's what I have been trying to get Amy and others to see. If you are going to be consistent in your theology then you cannot believe that God is fulfilling his purposes in every thing.

In fact, you have to admit that he RARELY, if EVER gets his way fully in ANY event that has occurred for the past many thousand years!!!

Thank you for your frankness and clarity.

I wish your peers had your courage.

Is everything that ever happens, from the horrible death of a child to the perishing of an eternal soul, fulfilling the ULTIMATE purpose of God which he purposed before the foundation of the world?

Absolutely yes!

And now you begin to show that inconsistency that is characteristic of this crowd that has no theology.

Did God always intend for everything to happen as it has and will?

Absolutely no!

And again....

When a man goes to hell, is he thwarting the purposes of God or is he fulfilling that eternal purpose of God?

Both!

Any theology that says that man thwarts the eternal purposes of God is horrendous but I appreciate your honesty.

Did God always intend and purpose and ultimately WILL (not proximately but remotely) that that man go to hell?

No it was not His intent.

So who was IN CHARGE (i.e. sovereign) over that man's eternal destiny?

According to you man is. So man is sovereign over eternity- at least the whole part of eternity that pertains to him.

And forever God does not get his way with that soul. Forever and forever God will not be FULLY sovereign, getting his way over TRILLIONS of souls.

See, if you just think your position through it really is terrible, isn't it?


Does everything that happens happen according to the ultimate purpose and will of God or is man thwarting the purposes and ultimate will of God?

The problem with this question is it cancels itself out by asking about the ultimate purpose and the will of God in the same sentence with the same parameters. God does not always get His will. I can give scripture but you said you did not want it.
The ultimate purpose of God is going to happen according to His will, but not all things that bring that about are in accord with His will.


So then God is sovereign over the ends but not the means.

Which means that God is not Sovereign over ANYTHING right now because EVERYTHING that happens now is a MEANS to an end.

So you admit that God is not the Sovereign ruler of the universe right now. In your theology, as I said, you have God FORFEITING his sovereign rule to man for now.

That makes His ultimate purpose under His Sovereignty and even that which goes against His will under His Sovereignty for the final result.

Which is exactly what I said above. God is not getting his way in trillions of events that take place over the earth every day. He never intended for them to happen. He is not bringing them to pass. They are not his ultimate will.

He is just sovereign over what they will PRODUCE in the end.

That means he is NOT sovereign now because MEN are doing things that he NEVER INTENDED for them to do. ZILLIONS of things!

That is horrendous, isn't it?

As to the second part of the question "is man thwarting the purposes and ultimate will of God"? The answer is no not in the ultimate sense.
[/QUOTE]

No. The answer is yes if you are going to be consistent.

If God never ULTIMATELY intended the MEANS then his ultimate will concerning the MEANS is not taking place and thus he is not sovereign but over the ends.
 

Luke2427

Active Member
I said God "allows" Satan to rule this world for now. By world I mean the system of the world. The word world in the bible almost always refers to sinful mankind. Yes, Christ rules in the hearts of believers, but Satan rules the godless, and God is allowing this.
It does not mean that God is not sovereign. Satan can do nothing apart from God's permission.

So when God permits Satan to blind the eyes of those that do not believe lest they should come to the light of the glorious Gospel, is God getting his way?

If he is not then he is permitting Satan to rule, not under Him, but in his stead.

God may rule the heavens, but he has allowed Satan to be the sovereign ruler of earth. God may intervene from time to time, but the sovereign ruler of earth, for the most part, in your theology, is Satan.
 

Luke2427

Active Member
satan offerred the Kingdoms of this World to Jesus IF he would worship Him

jesus did not say was not a "false" offer, that he was NOT to tempt God....

Jesus also said that satan IS present ruler of this World, which I take to mean is that the Devil 'way" of doing things, way World system run is done by his ways, not the ways of God

Once jesus returns, he will "reclaim" Earth, in the sense that he once again direct rules over while earth, and its ways are now fully Gods ways!

believe God is still fully in control, just has allowed it to be that satan permitted to run it for now!

Satan ruled under God doing God's will- yet doing it with an evil heart.
 

Luke2427

Active Member


Luke, I agree with E,W & F. You really need to explain your view of God's permissive will. You have equated God's permission of an event with his "bringing it to pass." This APPEARS to communicate that God's permissive will is equal to his active immediate agency.

As stated over and over, non-Calvinists often affirm the concept of God decreeing all things that come to pass when it is agreed that there are active and permissive decrees of God. Edwards and the Arminian divines agree on this point and clearly draw the distinction between those two types of decrees. I think EW&F is simply asking you to define and explain that distinction. I think we'd all be interested to hear that.

Thank you.

Your welcome to discuss this of course, but this is really not for you.

You HAVE a theology. It is rooted in history. It is internally consistent. It is, imo, orthodox. No greater fan did Calvin have than Arminius!

I am talking to almost everyone else on this board who is not a Calvinist who have no systematic theology.

You confirm that God wills that men go to hell.

You confirm that God wills everything that ever happens. And rightly you should since your theology has affirmed that.

Your beef is with my Calvinistic interpretation of permissive decrees which I have made clear to you on a number of occasions- which you seem incapable of grasping.

But it is not with the OP.
 

Luke2427

Active Member
Yes. God decreed Adam's sin, your sin, my sin, Jeffery Dahmer's sin.....ect...ect.....

You don't know what you are talking about.

You don't even know what he means when he says directly.

I have affirned no less than two dozen times that God controls all things by two means: proximate cause and/or remote or ultimate cause.

That is what Calvin taught as I have clearly shown before and it is what I ahve said the whole time.

I do not believe that God causes evil DIRECTLY- so you don't know what you are talking about- yet you say it anyway. It seems like we discussed this very thing recently....
 
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Luke2427

Active Member
Your guess is as good as mine. He quotes men like Edwards who believe what you just described, but then he makes comments which seem to contradict that view.

This is a lie which is becoming a habit of yours.

I've yet to see Luke show any real distinction between what God actively decrees and what he only permissively allows.

This is also a lie.

I have explained it in the VERY WORDS of the leading Calvinists of the last several centuries in no uncertain terms- in fact I have explained it in the words of Augustine whose words have been clear on this matter for 1800 years.

Evil is nothing but the absence of good.

This is so just as darkness is nothing but the absence of light.

In order for evil to exist good must simply be absent.

God's permissive decree entails him making his moral goodness vacate a situation. Evil inevitably ensues just as darkness does when light vacates.

This is the oldest reputable Christian theodicy in history.

I do not know why you cannot get it. BILLIONS have.

MILLIONS get it right now. Why you cannot is beyond me.

You don't have to agree with it- but you ought to be able to GET IT.


Luke has been known to say that God doesn't "just permit" anything,

EXACTLY. Just as the Westminster Confession and the London Baptist Confession say.

God's decrees do not come to pass by BARE PERMISSION.

This is Calvinism.

Any REAL Calvinist who didn't just MAKE UP his beliefs confirms this.

but that he "brings it to pass," which clearly gives the impression he holds to an active view of God determination of even the "evil things."

He brings it to pass via the means that I enunciate above. God does not create moral evil but he brings it to pass passively by simply vacating his moral goodness knowing that evil will ensue.

He then permits what is going to happen in that vacated spot to happen.

He does this by not intervening.

This is Calvinism. It is the only theodicy that makes an OUNCE of logical sense.

Now, he wouldn't call the things God does evil, obviously, but explains it by saying that because God does the deed with a pure motive, it is not evil.

This is the first sentence in which you have properly represented me in WEEKS!

By that line of reasoning, I think Luke believes that God killed his Son (active/ not passive), but because He did it with a good motive, its not evil.

Yes, this puts me in good company- with Isaiah and Luke and Calvin and Edwards and the vast majority of Calvinists since John Calvin.

Isaiah 53:10- Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.

Acts 4:27-28- For of a truth against thy holy child Jesus, whom thou hast anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together, For to do whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel determined before to be done.

Westminster and Baptist Confessions:
WCF:

Of Providence

5: 5. The almighty power, unsearchable wisdom, and infinite goodness of God so far manifest themselves in his providence, that it extends itself even to the first fall, and all other sins of angels and men; and that not by a bare permission, but such as hath joined with it a most wise and powerful bounding, and otherwise ordering, and governing of them, in a manifold dispensation, to his own holy ends; yet so, as the sinfulness thereof proceeds only from the creature, and not from God, who, being most holy and righteous, neither is nor can be the author or approver of sin.

[Which is exactly what I have been saying- The EVIL proceeds directly from the creature- the performance of it from the providence of God.]

Of the Fall of Man, of Sin, and of the Punishment Thereof:

6: 1. Our first parents, being seduced by the subtlety and temptation of Satan, sinned, in eating the forbidden fruit. This their sin, God was pleased, according to his wise and holy counsel, to permit, having purposed to order it to his own glory.

[He permitted it but he did not JUST permit it. It occurred by permission but not by BARE permission.]


LC 19:

Q19: What is God’s providence towards the angels?

A19: God by his providence permitted some of the angels, willfully and irrecoverably, to fall into sin and damnation, limiting and ordering that, and all their sins, to his own glory; and established the rest in holiness and happiness; employing them all, at his pleasure, in the administrations of his power, mercy, and justice.

I'm sure he'll accuse me of misrepresenting him and get really upset with me, but you can read through his posts for yourself and judge if what I've said seems accurate.

Which is exactly what I wish they would do so that they can see that you cannot accurately represent me and even when you QUOTE me you lie by adding brackets with words I did not say and that do not represent the CONTEXT of what I was saying in the quotes.
 
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Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
You confirm that God wills that men go to hell.
But the difference is that I would never word it in such a vague manner so as for it to be wrongly interpreted.

I would say God permits men to go to hell, but doesn't take pleasure in it. That is a clear and easy to understand statement which doesn't leave room for ambiguity. Your statement, on the other hand, could mean "God wants people to go to hell," or "God made people to go to hell," or "God desires that people go to hell." etc...etc...etc

Your beef is with my Calvinistic interpretation of permissive decrees which I have made clear to you on a number of occasions- which you seem incapable of grasping.
Isn't it interesting how I am capable of understanding and even reporting on dozens of Calvinistic scholars views on this subject in my masters and doctoral work, but for some weird reason loose all my cognitive abilities when I'm discussing this with you? Strange.
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
have explained it in the VERY WORDS of the leading Calvinists of the last several centuries in no uncertain terms- in fact I have explained it in the words of Augustine whose words have been clear on this matter for 1800 years.

Evil is nothing but the absence of good.

And I've answered this explanation by asking you how it is that something (the evil intent of a creature) comes from nothing? Saying that evil comes from the absence of good is like saying something is formed from nothing, and we both know only one person has the ability to create something from nothing...yet you deny that God originated evil, so who else is left?

This is where, in the past, you appeal to mystery, which is fine, but do so consistently instead of sometimes making statements such as "God does the deed but its not evil because he did it with a good motive." Because if that is true then why the need to appeal to mystery on the former question? Why not just say God originated the creatures evil intent, but He had a good motive so it wasn't evil? You are not consistent.

Either say, "I don't know, its a mystery." OR say "God does it ALL, but its not ever evil because He has a right motive." But why do you say both at different times when pressed on the same issue? Can you stop calling me a liar long enough to explain that?
 

Luke2427

Active Member
But the difference is that I would never word it in such a vague manner so as for it to be wrongly interpreted.

I would say God permits men to go to hell, but doesn't take pleasure in it. That is a clear and easy to understand statement which doesn't leave room for ambiguity. Your statement, on the other hand, could mean "God wants people to go to hell," or "God made people to go to hell," or "God desires that people go to hell." etc...etc...etc

No it's cowardly deflection.

The issue is not about how God FEELS when people go to hell.

The issue is that God WILLS that they do.

You agree as you OUGHT to, since you actually have a theology, that God willed in eternity past for a vast number to perish in hell.

You see it such that it was never God's will to save everyone but ONLY to make a WAY for everyone to be saved.

You still see God intending forever in eternity past for multitudes to perish to serve his holy purposes.

But what you dread is that these who you hope to subvert who have no theology will see that you agree with Calvinists on the issue (all except for that "only making a way" part- that is not Calvinism of course- we believe in Substitutionary Atonement).

But the fact is that this is WHY systematization of theology is necessary. It forces you to be consistent.

That's why these people who have no systematic theology can say God is sovereign over all at all times and at the same time HORRIBLY failing in his eternal purposes.

It is utterly ridiculous.

They do not deny as you do Substitutionary Atonement. No. No. They affirm this view as do Calvinists. But you are smarter than that as were all the classical Arminians. You know that that means that God is failing miserably if most folks are not getting saved. You know that that is inconsistent so you deny Substitutionary Atonement.

And KUDOS for doing so!

Your position is much more consistent than those that you want to pull to your side who have no theology.

It is horribly wrong, but it is relatively consistent.

Isn't it interesting how I am capable of understanding and even reporting on dozens of Calvinistic scholars views on this subject in my masters and doctoral work, but for some weird reason loose all my cognitive abilities when I'm discussing this with you? Strange.

Frankly, I don't yield the premise.

But even if I did I would consider it meaningless.

I am weak in eschatology (not illiterate mind you- but it is by no means one of my strengths).

Yet I have received great marks in my eschatology classes. Anybody can research some aspects and be very weak on the whole.

You are VERY weak on your understanding of Calvinistic theodicy- very weak as I have proven time and time again with the Westminster Confession, Calvin himself, Edwards, Piper- and the list goes on and on.
 
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Luke2427

Active Member
And I've answered this explanation by asking you how it is that something (the evil intent of a creature) comes from nothing? Saying that evil comes from the absence of good is like saying something is formed from nothing, and we both know only one person has the ability to create something from nothing...yet you deny that God originated evil, so who else is left?

This is where, in the past, you appeal to mystery, which is fine, but do so consistently instead of sometimes making statements such as "God does the deed but its not evil because he did it with a good motive." Because if that is true then why the need to appeal to mystery on the former question? Why not just say God originated the creatures evil intent, but He had a good motive so it wasn't evil? You are not consistent.

Either say, "I don't know, its a mystery." OR say "God does it ALL, but its not ever evil because He has a right motive." But why do you say both at different times when pressed on the same issue? Can you stop calling me a liar long enough to explain that?

I have explained it and until you apologize for intentionally misrepresenting what I said with your dishonest brackets by attributing my arguments to say that God DOES EVIL- you are lying- I know of no other way to put it.

I answered this with the following in the previous discussion.

If you don't understand compatabalism, that is fine. But just because you don't understand it doesn't mean that you must accuse me of saying something I have NEVER said.

Consider watching this video with Dr. Bruce Ware speaking on the subject to help you get it. It will also help you abandon this silly notion of libertarian free will in the first 3 minutes. It will address this issue at about 3 minutes and 25 seconds. At about 5 minutes Ware will say in no uncertain terms "God did it". Again at about 6 minutes 10 seconds. At 6 minutes and 35 seconds he says "GOD DID! WICKED MEN DID!" Pay special attention to what this Calvinist Theology SCHOLAR said at 7 minutes and 5 seconds. Notice how at 8:30 min 30 sec. to 9 min. 15 sec. this man who has a TREMENDOUS reputation as a respected Bible Scholar in the reformed community says that it is a matter of the heart. What I have been arguing all along is NOT the minority view in Calvinism. Not today and and not EVER! This is compatabalism. Two wills; two intentions culminating in one event in time.

And by explaining that evil is NOT something- it is NOTHING.

Nothing CAN come from nothing.

Darkness is NOTHING. It is only the absence of light.

Explain darkness as something with force and being and then you can expect me to explain evil as something.

I did not say that evil is SOMETHING that comes from nothing. It is NOTHING but the absence of good just as darkness is nothing but the absence of light.
 
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freeatlast

New Member
Finally an honest adherent to this nameless theology.

You ACTUALLY ADMIT that you do not believe the Bible teaches that God is sovereign.

Whether they want to admit it or not, you represent the beliefs of the others who, like you, have no nameable systematic theology.

Thank you for your honesty.



Wonderful!

That's what I have been trying to get Amy and others to see. If you are going to be consistent in your theology then you cannot believe that God is fulfilling his purposes in every thing.

In fact, you have to admit that he RARELY, if EVER gets his way fully in ANY event that has occurred for the past many thousand years!!!

Thank you for your frankness and clarity.

I wish your peers had your courage.



And now you begin to show that inconsistency that is characteristic of this crowd that has no theology.



And again....



Any theology that says that man thwarts the eternal purposes of God is horrendous but I appreciate your honesty.



So who was IN CHARGE (i.e. sovereign) over that man's eternal destiny?

According to you man is. So man is sovereign over eternity- at least the whole part of eternity that pertains to him.

And forever God does not get his way with that soul. Forever and forever God will not be FULLY sovereign, getting his way over TRILLIONS of souls.

See, if you just think your position through it really is terrible, isn't it?


Does everything that happens happen according to the ultimate purpose and will of God or is man thwarting the purposes and ultimate will of God?



So then God is sovereign over the ends but not the means.

Which means that God is not Sovereign over ANYTHING right now because EVERYTHING that happens now is a MEANS to an end.

So you admit that God is not the Sovereign ruler of the universe right now. In your theology, as I said, you have God FORFEITING his sovereign rule to man for now.



Which is exactly what I said above. God is not getting his way in trillions of events that take place over the earth every day. He never intended for them to happen. He is not bringing them to pass. They are not his ultimate will.

He is just sovereign over what they will PRODUCE in the end.

That means he is NOT sovereign now because MEN are doing things that he NEVER INTENDED for them to do. ZILLIONS of things!

That is horrendous, isn't it?

No. The answer is yes if you are going to be consistent.

If God never ULTIMATELY intended the MEANS then his ultimate will concerning the MEANS is not taking place and thus he is not sovereign but over the ends.[/QUOTE]


[SIZE=+0]Hello Luke,
when ever I see someone who has a passion about a subject I always tend to seek to listen to them with even greater intent as to what they are trying to get across so as to weigh it against my own belief to see if I have misunderstood the matter or to gain greater support for what I hold and I have done so in this case. I come away with this.
In using your theology and what you hold as the understanding of God's sovereignty it is that everything happens because God in His sovereign will and control ordains it down the even the most finite detail of all eternity which includes even a hiccup. Please correct me if I am wrong in that. On the same token if we are to be consistent with your belief in this matter, my theology on this matter which is different then yours and which you feel is no theology has to be God ordained because of His will using your understanding of how God works and to keep Him sovereign. So using your understanding, either way, your belief or mine, we are both in His will and being controlled by Him as to what we believe according to your understanding of how God works. So who can thwart the will of God?
[/SIZE]
 
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