It is KJV-only advocates who have been shown to use illogical rhetoric such as the fallacy of begging the question, special pleading, the fallacy of false dilemma, and the fallacy of composition along with using divers measures or weights. You failed to show that I used any illogic.
Has Timothy Morton corrected his false claims?
Timothy Morton contended that "the 1762 and 1769 [editions] were to update the spelling" and that "by 1769 whatever slight textual errors that still remained were removed, and the text was finally free from any man-made error" (Which Translation Should You Trust, p. 42). Morton claimed: “Not one change made in any of the editions of the Authorized Version was to update the language or correct a (supposed) mistranslation” (p. 44).
How can there have been errors though in the perfect 1611 version though?
Which edition of the 1769 is the real one?
Do KJVO include varients that are used in the margins as possible bible or not?
Last edited by a moderator: