So, music is intrinsically corrupted and instruments are corrupted and outside the pleasing will of God? That doesn't sound at all like the curse you speak of in Genesis 3. It would seem to me that mankind would need to do something sinful to corrupt music, not that music is automatically sinful. That just doesn't fit with the sovereignty of God as Creator of all seen and unseen.
I did not say anything about music being "intrinsically corrupted and instruments are corrupted and outside the pleasing will of God."
It seems that you believe that the curse did not have any effects on instrumental music. If that is what you believe, what biblical basis do you have for believing that is true?
Also, you say that it would seem to you "that mankind would need to do something sinful to corrupt music, not that music is automatically sinful." Again, I never said and am not saying that music is automatically sinful.
Having said that, however, what biblical basis do you have for holding that there is no instrumental music that is sinful, if that is what you hold?
Finally, you seem to hold that any corruption of music would have to be the result of the actions of mankind. Do you have any Bible to support that it would have to be mankind and not Satan and his demons or both?