I won't play the endless Greek game. I've never seen going back to the "original languages" ever settle anything when it couldn't be settled in the English. Who knows, I may live to see the day, but so far I haven't seen it. So please forgive me if I study
obtained in my Bible, and yes I know that different Greek verbs are used, and again, there is not one case of Greek verbs being consistently used in a perfectly categorical manner (ex: the whole phileo-agapao distinction is a joke for anyone who studied it).
So the text alone:
I don't know if
obtained is exclusively active or exclusively passive.
Comparing scriptures with scriptures, sometimes it's passive:
Acts 27:13 And when the south wind blew softly, supposing that they had obtained their purpose, loosing thence, they sailed close by Crete.
And sometimes it's active:
Acts 22:28 And the chief captain answered, With a great sum obtained I this freedom. And Paul said, But I was free born.
From the text alone:
I don't know whether
faith is a reference to saving faith exclusively or to New Testament revelation exclusively.
From other scriptures I know that:
In parallel to 2Peter 1:1 Paul speaks of
the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith (Ro.1:17), there clearly referencing Old Testament faith (revelation) VS New Testament faith (revelation).
In parallel to 2Peter 1:1, Paul blesses the
already-saved-through-faith Ephesians by wishing them
faith, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ (Eph.6:23).
I have no problem applying the obtaining of faith to both saving faith and to the larger body of revelation whereinto believers are to grow in faith.
It was God indeed that revealed Jesus as
the Christ, the Son of the living God to Peter himself, the author of 2Peter 1:1.
It was God indeed that opened Lydia's heart
that she attended unto the things which were spoken of Paul.
Both these could testify that they obtained their saving faith from God.
But how did they obtain that faith from God? By a supposedly mysterious and apparently random pre-creation decree of God to irresistibly overcome their sinful will by making them believe?
Or was it not rather through the on-their-own-sufficient-means ordained of God: the preaching of the gospel and the conviction of the Holy Spirit?
Lydia and Peter were already people seeking God (and for every
Romans 3:11 I'll show you 3 verses where men are said to seek God) and who were honest with the light that God had already shown them when he opened up their heart to hear further revelation concerning his Son.
The Holy Ghost sets up the gospel, and the Holy Ghost convicts a man, and when that man believes it of his own free will, he is the one that believed, but he also obtained that faith since it was the Spirit that gave him something to believe and moved him to believe it.
Every heresy builds on a grain of truth.
Now please tell us how:
·
through the righteousness of God and our Saviour
means:
· "by a mysterious pre-creation decree to irresistibly make us believe when we could not believe".
And not:
· "by preaching the gospel to us and opening our honest hearts to attend to it"