Where does the bible say that?
It says it in Scriptures like: James 2:26, Eph.2:1; Rev.20:14,15; Rom.6:23, etc.
And who has claimed that spiritual death equates to physical death? Obfuscate, obfuscate, obfuscate.
Not equal, but similar. The are similar in that they both fall under the definition of separation.
This is your MO. Rather than honestly addressing the real issue you throw up a lot of smoke and dust to try to obfuscate the issue.
How is that? If one is speaking of death, then proper meanings must be assigned or there is confusion in the discussion. We are simply talking past each other.
Spiritual death does NOT equate to physical death. NOBODY in this discussion, except you, has made that claim.
When Adam died he was separated from God spiritually. How else could he carry one a conversation with God?
Physical death is when life is separated from the body. Spiritual death is when the spirit is separated from its Creator. That would seem to be self-evident.More obfuscation.
Yes it is self-evident and obviously not "obfuscation."
Once again you (deliberately?) fail to understand the simple concept of faith. I will try one more time to enlighten you as to the difference between mere fleshly confidence and true bible faith.
We don't speak 13th century English. It was hardly English at that time.
Here is a Biblical definition of Faith:
Romans 4:20 He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God;
21 And
being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.
--The person whom the Bible describes as "strong in faith," was "fully persuaded that what God had promised God was able to perform."
Faith is the confidence that what a person has promised a person will do, whether in the secular realm or the spiritual realm.
So when God inspired 1 Corinthians 2:14 "Now the natural man doesn’t receive the things of God’s Spirit, for they are foolishness to him, and he can’t know them, because they are spiritually discerned" - was God lying?
This is a badly misused and misunderstood verse. The context is Christians who have been living a carnal life (1Cor.3:1-5). These verses just precede chapter three.
Thus the context starts primarily with verse 10 and ends with chapter 3, both speaking about Christians not being able to understand anything beyond simple truths of the Word of God:
1 Corinthians 2:10 But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God.
--They were not able to understand the deep things of the Word of God because they were carnal, still babes in Christ, not able to eat meat. They were worldly which means, though they were saved, they often acted like the unsaved. This means that while in that condition they did not receive the things of the Spirit nor did understand them
Note: it says they "did not," not "could not." There is a difference.
What about Romans 8:7 "Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be." Was God lying when He inspired that verse?
Writing to Christians, James says:
James 4:4 Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.
The carnal mind is emnity against God. And the friend of the world is the enemy of God, though he be a Christian. That is how much God hates the world. Both live in the flesh pleasing the flesh rather than the things of the Spirit of God. Both Paul and James is writing to Christians.
The bible says the unsaved man doesn't receive spiritual things but you say he does. The bible says he can't know them but you say he can. The bible says the unsaved man is the enemy of God you say he has faith in the love, sacrifice, and Person of God. The bible says the unsaved man can not be subject to the law of God but you say he can.
Who is right? You or God?
God is right. Your interpretation is wrong. God is speaking here to Christians living worldly and carnal lives.
If I told you of a Muslim who was given a Bible, and simply by reading the NT he was saved, without any other outside influence how would that affect your interpretation of 1Cor.2:14, when you say "the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God"?
Would you deny his salvation because he would not fit into your preconceived theology?