The context is that suffering and death are temporary and that the power of the resurrection is eternal. In 1 Peter 3:21-22 he mentions the power of the resurrection of Christ and His subsequent exhalation. Then, he makes application back to the suffering of Christ and our identification with Him in His sufferings. We know that since Christ went through suffering and was glorified, we also can identify with His sufferings and then be glorified.
Agreed
1Pe 3:22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.
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1Pe 4:5 Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
1Pe 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
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1Pe 4:13 But rejoice, inasmuch as ye are partakers of Christ's sufferings; that, when his glory shall be revealed, ye may be glad also with exceeding joy.
According to all these verses, Jesus reigns NOW in heaven with "angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him," YET in the future, His glory shall be REVEALED when He comes to judge the living and the dead.
The powers mentioned are in heaven, not in earth. Jesus does not reign on earth and nothing in these verses suggest that. There will come a time when He will reign on earth but this passage does not suggest that he is reigning on earth now. To say so is taking this passage out of context.
He is in heaven.
He is on the right hand of God.
He is interceding for the believers; not reigning on earth.
I don't understand why it is so difficult to accept that there is both an "already and not yet" aspect to the eschatological kingdom of God.
His Kingdom, the Kingdom of Heaven, the Kingdom that the Jews looked forward to, is still to come. The OT described it in detail. Even the Lord's Prayer described it: "Thy Kingdom come..." He was referring to a Millennial Kingdom that we are to pray for.
In the first phrase, Christ is reigning from heaven and subjecting the powers that once held the nations bondage to darkness, but now the gospel spreads around the world and Satan cannot stop it. Satan can fight it, but it prevails. This is the part of the kingdom where the nobleman is reigning from the "far country" and has given His kingdom to "others" to maintain.
Sin does prevail.
Satan does prevail. ISIS is prevailing isn't it?
This world is held in the darkness of sin and Satan.
Satan is the god of this world; the prince of the power of this air, the spirit that now works in the children of disobedience.
Satan offered This Kingdom, His Kingdom, to Jesus. He was the only one that could do so. It is his. The earth and its worldly system belongs to Satan, the god of this world. Jesus refused it.
In the second phase, Christ returns to judge the living and the dead, restores all things as the new heavens and new earth, and through eternity this is the phase that premillennialists think is the 1000-year period.
The first phase is the rapture which has not come yet. And then the Tribulation--God's wrath for seven years on the wicked of this earth.
Then Christ will come in his glory to set up his Kingdom of one thousand years.
Obviously, this is the Crucifixion.
Mar 12:9 What shall therefore the lord of the vineyard do? he will come and destroy the husbandmen, and will give the vineyard unto others.
Mar 12:10 And have ye not read this scripture; The stone which the builders rejected is become the head of the corner:
This was fulfilled in A.D. 70.
Maybe, maybe not. The main truth in the parable is that Christ came; Christ was rejected. But Christ is the chief cornerstone. All need to be saved and they need to come through Christ.
The nobleman destroyed the ones who crucified the Son and he gave the kingdom to "others" (the remnant of Israel and the Gentile believers grafted into the same olive tree). There is nothing that indicates that this kingdom will once again be given back to the "natural branches."
Don't base your theology on parables.
Jesus Christ is a Jew. Does he get cast out also? Some of this allegorization gets ridiculous.
This is New Covenant Israel who now manages the kingdom while the nobleman is away.
There is no such thing as "New Covenant Israel."
As Paul said: there is the Church, the Gentiles and the Jews.
Israel will always exist. Was Paul a demented fool for praying for the nation of Israel (something that didn't exist according to your theology.)
The nobleman "came and destroyed" the husbandmen (apostate Old Covenant Israel) and replaced his husbandmen with the New Covenant version.
Poor old Paul. How deceived he was in continuing to pray for the nation of Israel in Rom.10:1ff and Rom.9:1ff. He, according to you was mixed up theologically and deluded about the nation of Israel. Pitiful.
The nobleman "came" in judgment upon Jerusalem in A.D. 70 to destroy his unfaithful husbandmen and replace them with better ones. Naturally, the nobleman returned to his business in the "far country" because that is why he gave his kingdom to his original husbandmen in the first place.
Destruction was judgment, but only a partial fulfillment of prophecy. The complete fulfillment of prophecy of judgment will come during the Tribulation Period, still in the future.
