What type of foolsih question is this? No gospel means no salvation. Again, as I have asked you many times, those who perished in the mid-centuries never heaing about Christ, how did they make it to heaven. Don't appeal to mystery again, as you have before. Is there anyone in heaven who never heard of Jesus?...I am referring to adults here.
I don't know for a certainty. All I know is that scripture implies God judges a man according to what he knows.
Luk 12:47 And that servant,
which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with
many stripes.
48 But he that
knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with
few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.
Jesus said the man who knows this lord's will but did not obey shall be beaten with many stripes. The man who did not know his lord's will, but did things worthy of stripes shall be beaten with few stripes.
This seems to imply those who do not hear the gospel shall receive leniency of some sort.
What did Jesus mean when He said:
If any hath ears to hear -- let him hear.'(Mark 4:23)
If any hath ears to hear -- let him hear.'(Mark 7:16)
he who is having ears to hear -- let him hear.(Matthew 11:15)
He who is having ears to hear -- let him hear.'(Matthew 13:9)
`Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the reign of their Father. He who is having ears to hear -- let him hear.(Matthew 13:43)
And he said to them, `He who is having ears to hear -- let him hear.'(Mark 4:9)
`And other fell upon the good ground, and having sprung up, it made fruit an hundred fold.' These things saying, he was calling, `He having ears to hear -- let him hear.'(Luke 8:8)
neither for land nor for manure is it fit -- they cast it without. He who is having ears to hear -- let him hear.'(Luke 14:35)
Why did He say "He who is having ears to hear--let him hear"? Why was He saying it in that manner? Why didn't everyone there have "ears to hear with"?
Saying, "he that hath ears to hear, let him hear" means his message was to everyone. If you have ears, then listen.
Jesus was not saying the only person who could listen and hear him where those he regenerated, you are inserting that into scripture when it is not there.
Get tossed into jail and no one goes your bail and see how quick you can get out. We were spiritually "broke", were in prison. No one but Jesus could go our bail. He did for His sheep, the rest are kept in prison.
The rich man was dead to righteousness.
<------best answer I can give for that last sentence...
The reason the rich man did not ask Abraham to get him out of hell is because he already knew the answer, NO. This man had heard God's word his whole life and that is the point. He didn't listen. He COULD have listened, but all he was interested in was wealth and pleasure. Now it was too late for him.
How does any of this answer the question I put to you? Are you offended that a man uses his ears to hear the gospel, and uses his mind to think and understand the gospel? How is that not man contributing to his own salvation that you seem so worried about?
Seems to me you Calvinists should go out to the graveyard and preach there. Then no one could boast they contributed or participated in their salvation. You folks love to compare salvation to Lazarus being raised from the dead, so why do you preach to living people?
Yes, go out and preach in the graveyard, then no one can claim they participated with God in their salvation.
You don't even see how extreme you have become since you have adopted this new view.
