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Giving by the Father - Jn. 6:37-65

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Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
The "mystery" is in regard to the "middle wall of partition" in the PUBLIC HOUSE OF WORSHIP

That is not what Paul spells out regarding the mystery of the gospel. Just like the concept of 'God's PRESENT RACIAL SPHERE of redemptive activity' is not something that is ever actually taught in the scriptures. Those are concepts you bring to the table in order to justify your particular system of soteriology.

Paul said that the "mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus." That is something Peter had to be taught (white sheet dream) and the point that Paul, the apostle of the Gentiles, was having to defend at every turn in his ministry.

YES, the Law and prophets testified to the truth, but it was only with the revelation of the NT authors that these truths were being fully and completely unveiled for the world. The gospel was being sent first to the Jew and then the Gentile. The Jew was first in the vine, but now the Gentile was being grafted in. That is significant to our understanding of election.

Election is about nations being ENABLED to RESPOND to God's revelation and at the time Christ is on earth Israel is being BLINDED (made unable) to respond and the Gentiles are being made ABLE to RESPOND. Paul explains it about as clearly as it can be explained in Acts 28:

26 " 'Go to this people [Israel] and say, "You will be ever hearing but never understanding; you will be ever seeing but never perceiving." 27 For this people's heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears, and they have closed their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts and turn, and I would heal them.' 28 "Therefore I want you to know that God's salvation has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will listen!"​
 

quantumfaith

Active Member
Hey IJ,

I like Peter Kreeft too. He is a clear, logical and rational thinker for christianity. I have even read some of Scott Hahn. I find many catholic writers, particularly those expressing their gift in the realm of science to be quite gifted.
 

Protestant

Well-Known Member
Election is about nations being ENABLED to RESPOND to God's revelation

No, it is not.

Election is about God the Father choosing specific individual sinners whom He wills to save before those persons -- both Jews and Gentiles [even Gentiles before the creation of Israel] -- did anything to merit salvation, including believing on the Savior who was to come, or Jesus Christ, the Savior who came.

Election is about the eternal, unconditional love of God the Father, Son and Holy Spirit for specific sinners......sinners who hated God.

Election is about the infallible purpose of God the Father to actually save those specific God-hating sinners.

Election is about providing the infallible means by which those elected will certainly attain salvation.

Election is about the Son willingly dying in the place of those specific sinners whom the Father has chosen.

Election is about the Son purchasing for the Elect all the spiritual gifts necessary to the attainment of their salvation.

Election is about the Holy Spirit irresistibly and effectually applying these gifts to the same Elect.

Election is about God's infallible purpose to gather a people for His name who will worship and enjoy Him forever.
 

quantumfaith

Active Member
That is not what Paul spells out regarding the mystery of the gospel. Just like the concept of 'God's PRESENT RACIAL SPHERE of redemptive activity' is not something that is ever actually taught in the scriptures. Those are concepts you bring to the table in order to justify your particular system of soteriology.

Paul said that the "mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus." That is something Peter had to be taught (white sheet dream) and the point that Paul, the apostle of the Gentiles, was having to defend at every turn in his ministry.

YES, the Law and prophets testified to the truth, but it was only with the revelation of the NT authors that these truths were being fully and completely unveiled for the world. The gospel was being sent first to the Jew and then the Gentile. The Jew was first in the vine, but now the Gentile was being grafted in. That is significant to our understanding of election.

Election is about nations being ENABLED to RESPOND to God's revelation and at the time Christ is on earth Israel is being BLINDED (made unable) to respond and the Gentiles are being made ABLE to RESPOND. Paul explains it about as clearly as it can be explained in Acts 28:

26 " 'Go to this people [Israel] and say, "You will be ever hearing but never understanding; you will be ever seeing but never perceiving." 27 For this people's heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears, and they have closed their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts and turn, and I would heal them.' 28 "Therefore I want you to know that God's salvation has been sent to the Gentiles, and they will listen!"​

:applause::applause::applause:
 

Inspector Javert

Active Member
This is not a matter of improper logic but improper interpretation which you are guilty of. You are READING INTO this text what is not there and yet attempting to deny what is there and all based on faulty hermeneutics and pure eisgesis.
Really??? Please show me where I asserted anything about the text that it doesn't say.....I've actually made no assertions about what the text says Biblicist, so, I'll wait, but not hold my breath.
1. You are reading into this text (v. 44) that God draws all men
I don't read that into the text Biblicist.........because, now this will surprise, you but:

I DON'T BELIEVE the text DOES SAY all men are drawn!!! :eek:...

Please quote where I "read that into the text" or "asserted it"....I'll wait.
The text neither says or infers that. YOU ARE READING IT INTO THE TEXT.
NO.....you are reading that into my post! :laugh: It doesn't say that here, Biblicist. I agree with you that it doesn't!

Nosir, I don't read that into vs. 44 .......

Nope, I read the Apostle tell us that six chapters later over here---->
Jhn 12:32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.
Jhn 12:33 This he said, signifying what death he should die.
:wavey:
and AMONG ALL MEN DRAWN there are only some who come and they are raised.
Nosir, I don't believe vs. 44 says that at all nor do I read that into it.....that's not really proven until vs 64-66 and vs. 70 and 71 actually:
Jhn 6:64 But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
Jhn 6:65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.

Jhn 6:66 From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.


Jhn 6:70 Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?
Jhn 6:71 He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray him, being one of the twelve.


You see....Jesus "chose" all twelve of them, but he wasn't "given of the Father" why? Because Jesus says what the father's will is in vs 40!
Jhn 6:40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day. <----- That's the SUFFICIENT CONDITION! :applause:



You see, being drawn is a necessary condition as I was saying........You can't "come" except you be drawn, but, then if all who are "drawn" will NECESARILY COME...then you have Universalism on your hands. (And indeed, that same viewpoint you espouse that all who are "drawn" invariably come, is precisely the same viewpoint that Universalists have)....and that's why they believe as they do.......because they they believe (as you do) that all who are "drawn" inevitably and irresistably come.
 
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Inspector Javert

Active Member
If we want to speak about logic or foolish logic, then how foolish would it be for Christ first to claim that men must first be GIVEN by the Father as the condition or in order to come to Christ by faith (Jn. 6:37-39) and then turn around in verses 44-45 and claim all can come to the Father regardless if the Father gives them to the Son or not because all are drawn by the Father thus placing "given" and "draw" in direct contradiction to each other????
You are completely missing what Jesus is doing Biblicist........he's using these phrases in order to assert his DEITY! Look here:
Jhn 6:46 Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.
You see, they ARE being "taught of GOD" because Jesus was saying he WAS God!
Jhn 6:36 But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.
What is the signifigance of having "SEEN HIM"? it's here:
Jhn 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
Jhn 14:10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
Jhn 14:11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.

That's why we read this in the next chapter:
Jhn 7:1 After these things Jesus walked in Galilee: for he would not walk in Jewry, because the Jews sought to kill him.
The Jews clearly understood what Jesus was asserting about himself. How do you not see what they saw?
Peter answers correctly:
Jhn 6:69 And we believe and are sure that thou art that Christ, the Son of the living God.

Biblicist, because of your particular view of Soteriology, you have seriously over-complicated this chapter.....it really is NOT near as complicated as you are explaining it.
 
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BobRyan

Well-Known Member
Biblicist said:
Quote:
whereas "EXCEPT the Father...draw" is the ONLY EXCEPTION to this universal rule.
You are slicing and chopping up the statement and the result is mush.

Leave it as it is. The "no one can come UNLESS the Father DRAWS them" is the ONE thought that applies to ALL.

The saints were not at one time "lost people that came to Christ APART from the drawing of God". Even you cannot deny this.

And neither are those who choose to REMAIN in rebellion against God are not able to come to Christ unless supernaturally DARWN. Again you cannot deny this.

Thus it is the same with BOTH groups. Neither of them CAN COME to Christ on their own - apart from the supernatural drawing by God.


None of them (saint or lost person) could have come to Christ without that drawing of God. And He says He "Draws ALL unto Me" John 12:32.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Biblicist
John 6:64-65 declares some had NEVER BEEN drawn/taught/given by the Father. However, "ALL" who have been drawn/taught DO COME TO CHRIST (Jn. 6:45).

64 But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father
.

Not one place in that text do we find what you claim John 6:64-65 declares so you just "quote you" when you state "some had NEVER BEEN drawn" and then you preface your own "quote of you" with "John 6:64-65 declares "

The same goes for "you quoting you" when you get to the all important ""ALL" who have been drawn/taught DO COME TO CHRIST (Jn. 6:45)" claim it is merely "you quoting you" - no such "drawn/taught" words in the actual text.

Rather the text says

"44 “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws them, and I will raise them up at the last day. 45 It is written in the Prophets: ‘They will all be taught by God.’ Everyone who has heard the Father and learned from him comes to me."

They must be DRAWN, they must choose to HEAR, and they must choose to LEARN - to then have the result that "they come to Me".



Does this sound familiar??

Christ does not split man into two groups (wicked and saints) in John 6 but rather he inlcudes ALL HUMANS in the universal negative "NO MAN can come to Me UNLESS the Father Draws Him". No one CAN come to God without that drawing - and ALL are drawn. So it includes ALL humans in every sense.

This applies to ALL the saints and ALL the wicked.

Neither gropu came to Christ WITHOUT the Drawing of God nor CAN they do it "on their own".

Your whole argument rests completely on the veracity of your denial above and you are wrong!

44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

61 When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?............64 But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.
66 From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.



FACT #1 - No one can HONESTLY deny that verse 65 is the reassertion of verse 44 by Christ. Indeed, his words "therefore I said unto you" refer to a past statemenet made by him which can be found nowhere in the context but verse 44.

"The problem" with your slicing the text in this way is that you must everty so carefully leave out the compound conditions of vs 45 almost denying that the reference back in vs 65 includes what was said.

45 It is written in the Prophets: ‘They will all be taught by God.’ Everyone who has heard the Father and learned from him comes to me."

It is "DRAWN" AND it is "HEARD" AND it is "learned" that results in "Comes ot Me" as is pointed out in vs 45.

Thus "I will DRAW ALL" John 12:32 does not mean "all will learn, all will choose to hear -- all will come to Me"

John 6:70 "have I not chosen YOU the twelve and yet one of you is a devil".

"He came to HIS OWN and HIS OWN received Him not" John 1

FACT#3 - No one can HONESTLY deny the issue of verse 64 is UNBELIEF and Jesus is applying verse 44 directly to that issue! However, that is exactly what you are denying.

Hint: vs 44 AND vs 45 where the COMPOUND conditions for coming to Christ are listed. Your effort to downsize it to a single condition does not allow for --

John 6:70 "have I not chosen YOU the twelve and yet one of you is a devil".

"He came to HIS OWN and HIS OWN received Him not" John 1

FACT#5 - The Father NEVER drew "some" of his disciples and He knew this "FROM THE BEGINNING" of their profession of faith as "disciples" and that is precisely why he applied verse 44 to these specified disciples.


NOT TEXT - no note even John 6 says "The Father NEVER drew "some" of his disciples" -- so what do you do for that much needed text?? you "quote you".

yet it is the salient point of your argument - and you only have "you" to quote for it.



FACT#6 - Not only "some" of his disciples but many in his audiance had never been drawn/taught/heard/learned

Fact - the fictious phrase "drawn/taught/heard/learned" as if it were all one word - one thing - is not found in all of scripture. For that salient point in your own argument you must again "quote you".


FACT#7 - Therefore, not ALL men without exception have been drawn/taught/heard/learned


Not all have been Drawn AND taught AND heard AND learned but "I will DRAW ALL unto ME" John 12:32 -- ALL have been drawn.

Notice that John 12 does not say "I will DRAW/teach/make hear/force-to-learn ALL unto ME".

It is just "DRAW" and that is the supernatural drawing of God that EVEN in Calvinism - enables the free will CHOICE that depravity disables - to accept the Gospel.

in Christ,

Bob
 

preacher4truth

Active Member
Election is about nations being ENABLED to RESPOND to God's revelation and at the time Christ is on earth Israel is being BLINDED (made unable) to respond and the Gentiles are being made ABLE to RESPOND. Paul explains it about as clearly as it can be explained in Acts 28:


That's downright error on your part, yet you've attempted for quite awhile now to distort the Sovereignty of God in election, reprobation &c.

So, everyone is elect and you're a Universalist? Do you follow Rob Bell now as well? Is he also a Unitarian in theology? Wonder where all this error leads? It's definitely going down the wrong path theologically.
 
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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I have many posts to respond to and I will. However, let me simplify this whole issue down to three simple truths we all agree with:

1. "Draw" in verse 44 is synonmous with "taught" in verse 45a - correct?

2. "Taught" in verse 45a is synonmous with BOTH "heard" and "learned" in verse 45b as no one can claim to have been taught to teach anyone else if they have not BOTH "heard" what is said and "learned" what it means. Correct?'

3. Conclusion - The ONLY ONES drawn are those who have both heard and learned and "WHOSOVER" has been thus drawn/taught do come to Christ. So "ALL" drawn do come just as "ALL" given do come. All who do not come where never drawn/taught/heard/learned of the Father.
 

Inspector Javert

Active Member
I have many posts to respond to and I will. However, let me simplify this whole issue down to three simple truths we all agree with:

1. "Draw" in verse 44 is synonmous with "taught" in verse 45a - correct?
No.
2. "Taught" in verse 45a is synonmous with BOTH "heard" and "learned" in verse 45b as no one can claim to have been taught to teach anyone else if they have not BOTH "heard" what is said and "learned" what it means. Correct?'
Yes.
3. Conclusion - The ONLY ONES drawn are those who have both heard and learned and "WHOSOVER" has been thus drawn/taught do come to Christ. So "ALL" drawn do come just as "ALL" given do come. All who do not come where never drawn/taught/heard/learned of the Father.
No....because, your first statement is false. "Drawn" is not synonymous with those who have "learned". Those who COME are.....that's the word in vs. 44 you're ignoring.....

It might qualify as being a "sufficient" condition in that respect....whereas "drawing" is only a "necessary" one.
 
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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That is not what Paul spells out regarding the mystery of the gospel.

Yes it is because the "mystery" that Paul spells out begins in Ephesians 2:11-3:5 which includes more than the gospel but the congregational body. I simply placed it in its fuller context rather than jumping directly in Ephesians 3:1-5.





Just like the concept of 'God's PRESENT RACIAL SPHERE of redemptive activity' is not something that is ever actually taught in the scriptures. Those are concepts you bring to the table in order to justify your particular system of soteriology.


Yes they are as the promise to Abraham from the beginning is divided into TWO RACES which constitute the very meaning of his name - Father of many nations (gentiles) including a nation singular from his own loins.

Yes they are as Romans 11 is divided into two olive trees which are divided into TWO RACES (Jewish and Gentile) wherein these two racial spheres God calls out His elect and that elect from within Israel is called "the remnant" in every generation of which the Gentile elect are no part.



Paul said that the "mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus."

You are simply jerking out of context one verse in Ephesians 3 when the context of that one verse includes Ephesians 2:11-3:5. The gospel is no "mystery" as it has always included Jews and Gentiles (Acts 10:43) but what is the true mystery is that gospel salvation now brings the Gentile and places them on an EQUAL standing within the NEW PUBLIC HOUSE OF GOD -the congregational body so abolishing the "middle wall of partition" that was errected in the OLD PUBLIC HOUSE OF GOD.




That is something Peter had to be taught (white sheet dream) and the point that Paul, the apostle of the Gentiles, was having to defend at every turn in his ministry.

No it is not! What was shown Peter is that Jews can no longer treat and regard Gentiles as "unclean" second class citizens in God's kingdom. That is the very reason the "middle wall of partition" was errected in the OLD PUBLIC HOUSE OF WORSHIP because even saved proselyted Gentiles were regarded as INFERIOR, UNCLEAN and not worthy to venture past that wall. Peter baptized Corneilius and His household thus bringing them into the membership of the NEW PUBLIC HOUSE OF WORSHIP which enraged Jewish members in Acts 11:1-17.

YES, the Law and prophets testified to the truth, but it was only with the revelation of the NT authors that these truths were being fully and completely unveiled for the world.


Wrong again! The OT said NOTHING about a GENTILE new public house of God or any new house of God where Jews and Gentiles were treated as EQUALS - that was entirelly New Testament "revelation" or a "mystery."

However, the Old Testament is full of revelation that the gospel and salvation included Gentiles THEN and NOW (All non-Jews between Adam and Abraham; Rahab the harlot, Jonah and Niniveh - the whole book of Jonah; the whole book of Ruth) good grief two whole books of the Old Testament reveal salvation of gentiles.


The gospel was being sent first to the Jew and then the Gentile. The Jew was first in the vine, but now the Gentile was being grafted in. That is significant to our understanding of election.

Wrong again! The gospel was not sent first to the Jew as it was preached long before there were any Jews existing (Adam to Abrahm, Job) as it was preached by "all the prophets" and the first prophet was Abel according to Christ.

Jesus is speaking from his perspective IN TIME from that point forward as is Paul in regard to the future fulfillment of the initial promise to Abraham concerning elect from all nations and the ultimate fulfillment in the nation of Israel. Romans 11 refers only between the first and second coming and God's purpose of redemption in regard to fullfiling the Abrahamic promise especially in regard to the nation of Israel (Rom. 11:1-5; 25-28) and how God uses even Israel's rebellion to accomplish his promise to Abraham of an elect among the nations.


Election is about nations

First, you are confused about God's elective choices. There is election to an office or calling such as a prophet or apostle. There is election to spiritual gifts, there is election to national privilege among nations and then there is "election to salvation." You are guilty of attempting to confuse these various aspects of election simply to justify your unbiblical position which is really rediculous when any thinking person gives it a little bit of thought.

"election to salvation" is "THROUGH SANCTIFICATION OF THE SPIRIT AND BELIEF OF THE TRUTH (2 Thes. 2:13) the truth of the gospel (v. 14) and is being "given" by the Father to Christ for "eternal life" (Jn. 17:2) and those "given" al come to Christ (Jn. 6:37-39) and are all drawn/taught by Christ which draw/taught means they have all heard AND learned of Christ and it is rediculous to apply this to a NATION as only INDIVIDUALS experience this kind of "election to salvation." Even my position of national salvation (Rom. 11:25-28) is individually based.


Skandelon your post really is straying from the OP. I don't want this OP derailed into the meaning of election. Perhaps you will make this a separate thread as this OP is dealing with the proper interpretion of John 6:37-65 whereas your post is taking the readers away from that.
 
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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
No....because, your first statement is false. "Drawn" is not synonymous with those who have "learned". Those who COME are.....that's the word in vs. 44 you're ignoring.....

You are the only one that disagrees with my first point. All my opponents on this board have agreed that the father drawing and being taught by the Father are one and the same and that "taught" is the Old Testament version of being drawn by God as it is impossible for faith to exist without knowledge given by God and thus impossible for anyone to come to Christ in faith.

Furthermore, this is the natural interpretation of verse 44-45 as Jesus first asserts what only the Father must do for any to come and then quotes Isaiah to support his assertion. The quotation of Isaiah refers to God's action that Jesus just asserted in verse 44a rather than man's reaction in verse 44b.

Your denial is unreasonable and irrational. However, I understand why your own doctrine logically forces you to deny the obvious. BTW this response proves that my previous assertions were correct about your interpretation of this passage. I was really drawing from our past debates rather than any post you made on this thread. We have gone over this many other times if you remember and so I know your position.
 
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BobRyan

Well-Known Member
I have many posts to respond to and I will. However, let me simplify this whole issue down to three simple truths we all agree with:

1. "Draw" in verse 44 is synonmous with "taught" in verse 45a - correct?

2. "Taught" in verse 45a is synonmous with BOTH "heard" and "learned" in verse 45b as no one can claim to have been taught to teach anyone else if they have not BOTH "heard" what is said and "learned" what it means. Correct?'

Christ said "hearing they do not HEAR"

Christ claimed that what HE taught - they would not accept.

But in the case of John 6 we have Drawn AND we have heard AND we have Learned. This is a compound "AND" condition that leads to "will come to Me".


3. Conclusion - The ONLY ONES drawn are those who have both heard and learned
That is not a conclusion found in the text - it is a conclusion you are drawing out of the text by assuming that to "DRAW all men unto Me" John 12:32 means all men choose to HEAR and LEARN as God teaches when in fact they do not choose to do that - hence in Matt 13 Christ describes how his teaching is being rejected by those who "hearing - do not hear".

For "Men loved darkness rather than light" John 3.

"He is the light that coming into the world enlightens EVERY one" John 1.



Luke 10:16 “The one who listens to you listens to Me, and the one who rejects you rejects Me; and he who rejects Me rejects the One who sent Me.”

Luke 16:14 Now the Pharisees, who were lovers of money, were listening to all these things and were scoffing at Him

Luke 16:31 But he said to him, ‘If they do not listen to Moses and the Prophets, they will not be persuaded even if someone rises from the dead.’”

Luke 7
30 But the Pharisees and the lawyers rejected God’s purpose for themselves, not having been baptized by John. 31 “To what then shall I compare the men of this generation, and what are they like? 32 They are like children who sit in the market place and call to one another, and they say, ‘We played the flute for you, and you did not dance; we sang a dirge, and you did not weep.’ 33 For John the Baptist has come eating no bread and drinking no wine, and you say, ‘He has a demon!’ 34 The Son of Man has come eating and drinking, and you say, ‘Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax collectors and sinners!

Matt 23
37 “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the one who kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, but you were not willing!



"He came to His OWN and His OWN received Him not" John 1.

in Christ,

Bob
 

Inspector Javert

Active Member
You are the only one that disagrees with my first point. All my opponents on this board have agreed that the father drawing and being taught by the Father are one and the same.....
Firstly....I couldn't care less if I WAS the only one who disagreed (I'd still be correct)...but, I don't actually believe that's true either....You may have manipulated some into accepting propositions (that you are likely using a different definition for)....but, they DO NOT agree that all who are "drawn" are irresistibly "taught" and subsequently "learn"....NO, they are not synonymous, and your first premise is wrong.

Looking briefly at Bob's post....I do not think that he is so very in agreement with you over and against me, as you claim. Look at this by him:
But in the case of John 6 we have Drawn AND we have heard AND we have Learned. This is a compound "AND" condition that leads to "will come to Me".
and
That is not a conclusion found in the text - it is a conclusion you are drawing out of the text by assuming that to "DRAW all men unto Me" John 12:32 means all men choose to HEAR and LEARN
and this:
....you are drawing out of the text by assuming that to "DRAW all men unto Me" John 12:32 means all men choose to HEAR and LEARN as God teaches when in fact they do not choose to do that
Nope...that's pretty much a "someone" who might be included in your definition of "everyone" who CLEARLY does not accept your first premise....but, rather agrees with me that it is wrong....they are NOT synonymous....those who "COME" are those who "have been drawn, AND taught AND learned"...not ONLY those who are "drawn"....(it's his insistence on paying attention to the word "and" that gives it away.)

So....there's at least two of us, now....you may continue rescuing your argument from the majority from here.
 
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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You are slicing and chopping up the statement and the result is mush.

Bob, you have made this charge several times and it is not a valid charge for several reasons.

1. This phrase deals with THREE DIFFERENT things not one. (1) Universal inability "no man can come"; (2) Drawing by the Father; (3) resurrection of those coming.

2. The whole issue is due to not properly distinguishing between and defining the differences between these three aspects.

In reality what you are doing is MUSHING them all together in order not to distingush between things that differ.


Finally, my summary is sufficient to disprove your position.

1. "Draw" in verse 44 is synonmous with "taught" in verse 45a - correct?

2. "Taught" in verse 45a is synonmous with BOTH "heard" and "learned" in verse 45b as no one can claim to have been taught to teach anyone else if they have not BOTH "heard" what is said and "learned" what it means. Correct?'

3. Conclusion - The ONLY ONES drawn are those who have both heard and learned and "WHOSOVER" has been thus drawn/taught do come to Christ. So "ALL" drawn do come just as "ALL" given do come. All who do not come where never drawn/taught/heard/learned of the Father.
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
Biblicist said:
3. Conclusion - The ONLY ONES drawn are those who have both heard and learned and "WHOSOVER" has been thus drawn/taught do come to Christ. So "ALL" drawn do come just as "ALL" given do come. All who do not come where never drawn/taught/heard/learned of the Father.

No....because, your first statement is false. "Drawn" is not synonymous with those who have "learned". Those who COME are.....that's the word in vs. 44 you're ignoring.....

It might qualify as being a "sufficient" condition in that respect....whereas "drawing" is only a "necessary" one.
Indeed the salient points in Biblicist argument are
1. The ONLY ONES drawn are those who have both heard and learned
2. "ALL" drawn do come

Yet none of those statements are in the actual text. Rather the text of John points to the compound condition of DRAWN and heard and learned -- that results in "come to Me".

You are the only one that disagrees with my first point. All my opponents on this board have agreed that the father drawing and being taught by the Father are one and the same and that "taught" is the Old Testament version of being drawn by God

I find that response more than a little innexplicable.

Inspector J's statement above said - "your first statement is false. "Drawn" is not synonymous with those who have "learned".

That is pointing to the compound condition of vs 44 and 45 Drawn, and heard, and learned. Like the compound condition of Rev 3 "I stand at the door and KNOCK if anyone HEARS my voice AND OPENS the door - I WILL come in" John 12;32

as it is impossible for faith to exist without knowledge given by God and thus impossible for anyone to come to Christ in faith.
In John 6 Christ is not talking about the learning that results from "having information" but the learning that comes from accepting - choosing to accept, choosing to hear.

In Romans 1 we have the pagans "having information" but they choose to reject it. In Romans 1 "they are without excuse ... for the invisible attributes of God are clearly seen in the things that have been MADE".

You have the "Drawing of ALL" in John 12:32.

And you have John 16 where the Holy Spirit "Convicts the WORLD of sin and righteousness and judgment"

And you have the Romans 1 fact that the information given out to ALL "The light that enlightens EVERY one" John 1 does not result in acceptance - but some reject it according to Romans 1 and so are "Without excuse".

Jesus said "if you were blind you would have no sin - you say that you see - so your sin remains".

in Christ,

Bob
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
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Firstly....I couldn't care less .

Bob disagrees with your view as well. I will give you the benefit that Bob agrees with some things you say.

However, you did not address my response did you???? Shall I give it to you again?

.... "taught" is the Old Testament version of being drawn by God as it is impossible for faith to exist without knowledge given by God and thus impossible for anyone to come to Christ in faith.

Furthermore, this is the natural interpretation of verse 44-45 as Jesus first asserts what only the Father must do for any to come and then quotes Isaiah to support his assertion. The quotation of Isaiah refers to God's action that Jesus just asserted in verse 44a rather than man's reaction in verse 44b.

Your denial is unreasonable and irrational. However, I understand why your own doctrine logically forces you to deny the obvious. BTW this response proves that my previous assertions were correct about your interpretation of this passage. I was really drawing from our past debates rather than any post you made on this thread. We have gone over this many other times if you remember and so I know your position.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Indeed the salient points in Biblicist argument are
1. The ONLY ONES drawn are those who have both heard and learned
2. "ALL" drawn do come

Yet none of those statements are in the actual text. Rather the text of John points to the compound condition of DRAWN and heard and learned -- that results in "come to Me".

Inspector Jarvis and you both did not read what I said. I did say it included both - read it again! I defined "taught" to include BOTH having "heard" AND "learned." That was my very point!

So here is is again, this time read more carefully!

1. Draw is equal to Taught

2. Taugh is equal to HEARD and LEARNED

3. Thus none is drawn/taught who has not BOTH "heard AND learned" and EVERY MAN "heard and learned" comes to Christ.
 

Inspector Javert

Active Member
Inspector Jarvis and you both did not read what I said. I did say it included both - read it again! I defined "taught" to include BOTH having "heard" AND "learned." That was my very point!
Yes....that's actually the true part.
So here is is again, this time read more carefully!
1. Draw is equal to Taught
That's the false part
2. Taugh is equal to HEARD and LEARNED
Yes....but, not the "draw"
3. Thus none is drawn/taught who has not BOTH "heard AND learned" and EVERY MAN "heard and learned" comes to Christ.
Wrong...that's the problem....you keep wanting to include "draw" in that.....that's what you are forcing into the text. We understand what you are saying CLEARLY....

We are saying we disagree.
 
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