No surprise, but I disagree.
I believe that our purchase by Christ's blood is speaking of His death, not something that ended prior to Christ dying.
In your theory (as you stated across several threads) we were saved and forgiven of our sins by Christ becoming sin for us as the Father looked upon His Son as not only a sinner but the "chief of sinners" and punished our sins laid upon Him.
That means, in your theory, that Christ's death was not necessary - it was just the inevitable conclusion after His work of redemption was completed.
Brings to mind; I do not make void the grace of God, for if righteousness be through law -- then Christ died in vain.
And;
[to the] for by [to] grace ye are having been saved, through [the] faith, and this not of you -- of God the gift,
I think we need to remember, the angel told Joseph, the one in her, the virgin, being generated, out of Spirit is holy and the virgin would bring forth the holy one, God with us. Hebrews 1:2 states that one, Son, has been appointed heir of all things.
Does that include being the heir of the grace of life?
When did that Son, who died by the way, inherit the grace of life? Is that the promise of God, who can not lie, made before times begin?
Is it possible for anyone else being a joint heir without being given the Spirit if adoption?
That is how I understand the word of God.