KJB1611reader
Member
Both about reign, not all same reign.?
They claim to be the same event.
2 Kings 8:26, . . . when he began to reign; . . .
2 Chronicles 22:8, . . . when he began to reign, . . .
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Both about reign, not all same reign.?
They claim to be the same event.
2 Kings 8:26, . . . when he began to reign; . . .
2 Chronicles 22:8, . . . when he began to reign, . . .
So not the same person?Both about reign, not all same reign.
Freakin insane!Are you really though KJVO, as in God only wants us to read and use that one translation period, or is it that you prefer to use it instead?
And what is Scofieldism pray tell? How about straight outa the can Christianity? Damn, where do these people come from?He is KJVO, and holds to Scofieldism
clearly you miss understand the thinking process. Probably Cultic.Have you ever tried the Nkjv then?
Maybe not, maybe yes. Do all kings and people in Bible all have only one named that?So not the same person?
Dispensationalism? Zionism?And what is Scofieldism pray tell? How about straight outa the can Christianity? Damn, where do these people come from?
clearly you miss understand the thinking process. Probably Cultic.
What I understand is, the Hebrew for 2 Chronicles 22:2 had been charged. It currently translates as "fourty" but should translate as "twenty."Maybe not, maybe yes. Do all kings and people in Bible all have only one named that?
Did he reign twice? Was he co-reigent. Note: David also was made king and made king officially.
Not all the Hebrew manuscripts is 22 or 42..
What I understand is, the Hebrew for 2 Chronicles 22:2 had been charged. It currently translates as "fourty" but should translate as "twenty."
I'm IFB as well, and I agree with you except with the KJVO myth. First, it's KJV, NOT "KJB" ! Second, it is NOT perfect! One error that's especially glaring, is "Easter" in Acts 12:4. And there's NO SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT for the KJVO myth. (Please don't say "Psalm 12:6-7". That's been discussed & debunked many times on this page.I believe Bible (KJB) is perfect.
I believe in Dispensationalism.
I believe in the blood, the blood and the blessed hope.
I believe in the Godhead (Trinity.)
Hello,I'm IFB as well, and I agree with you except with the KJVO myth. First, it's KJV, NOT "KJB" ! Second, it is NOT perfect! One error that's especially glaring, is "Easter" in Acts 12:4. And there's NO SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT for the KJVO myth. (Please don't say "Psalm 12:6-7". That's been discussed & debunked many times on this page.
With all due respect, Shawn, you're simply wrong. The Greek 'pascha' is a transliteration of the Hebrew "p'sach", the word GOD used for passover. Pascha is the word JESUS used for passover. Besides, Easter didn't exist before Luke wrote "Acts". And Acts 12:3 says that the days of unleavened bread were then ongoing, which shows it was PASSOVER. The notion that the KJV is perfect is phony as a Ford Corvette.Hello,
I believe the King James Bible.
Easter is right: first, Easter is pagan and second - Passover isn't fallen on same day as ressurection.
King James Bible is perfect.
Shawn
Tyndale's English translation of the New Testament introduced Easter for Passover. And Tyndale invented the English word Passover when he later translated its Old Testament Hebrew text.Hello,
I believe the King James Bible.
Easter is right: first, Easter is pagan and second - Passover isn't fallen on same day as ressurection.
King James Bible is perfect.
Shawn
I am a Reformed BaptistDispensationalism? Zionism?
Which King James edition then, as hundreds of differences between the 1611, 1769. 1873 etcHello,
I believe the King James Bible.
Easter is right: first, Easter is pagan and second - Passover isn't fallen on same day as ressurection.
King James Bible is perfect.
Shawn