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I and the Father are one

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Van

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One more point, when was the plan developed to send God the Son as the Christ?

1Peter 1:20
For He was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you
 

37818

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The Person of Jesus Christ, the God-Man, is one of the Great Mysteries in the Bible. Eternally Yahweh and EQUAL to The Father and Holy Spirit. I am not too sure you can press 1 Corinthians 15:28 to show the "subjection" of Jesus to the Father post-Ascension, which John 17:5 rules out.
You admitt, "I am not too sure you can press 1 Corinthians 15:28 . . . ."
1 Corinthians 15:25-26, "For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. . . ." That happens in Revelation 20:14.
So 1 Corinthians 15:27-28, ". . . when all things shall be subdued unto him, . . ." understandably (to me) takes place after Judgment day (Revelation 20:14) when Christ receives His bride from Heaven on to the New Earth, when He as the Son begins His actual eternal rule (Isaiah 9:6-7, Luke 1:32). Revelation 21:1, Isaiah 65:17-18.

John 17:5 begain with HIm being again at the right hand of God, and how this was, was only what changed. John 3:13 KJV, Hebrews 1:3, John 1:2.
 
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Van

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Y1, who seems to never miss an opportunity to choose the wrong side of an issue, now claims the fullness of the Deity does not dwell in Christ.

Colossians 2:9
For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,
 

George Antonios

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there are many others who really love to study the Word of God in depth. If you are not one, then you should not bother readings posts like this!

It's a sad testimony to the Nicolaitan spirit of the age that "study the word of God in depth" must equal "studying Greek grammar and syntax"; a connection nowhere found in the scriptures, ironically.
 

SavedByGrace

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It's a sad testimony to the Nicolaitan spirit of the age that "study the word of God in depth" must equal "studying Greek grammar and syntax"; a connection nowhere found in the scriptures, ironically.

That is your personal take on it. Don’t assume the same for others like myself
 

Calminian

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if people don't take the time to read what I have written, then they have no right to ask any questions relating to this.

Do you really expect people to focus on you above all others? There's a lot of posters here. But you know that, so this is totally illogical. I appears you're oneness, but don't want to say.
 
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SavedByGrace

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Do you really expect people to focus on you above all others?

This is MY thread, the OP is MINE, If you bother to read what I have written, then you might learn a bit about MY theology, if you cannot take the time to read the OP, then move on and stop asking foolish questions!
 

Calminian

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This is MY thread, the OP is MINE, If you bother to read what I have written, then you might learn a bit about MY theology, if you cannot take the time to read the OP, then move on and stop asking foolish questions!

Pride. I'm just asking a simple question, because it fits with what you've been saying. But I would accept a simple denial. Maybe your conscience won't let you deny it.
 

Yeshua1

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30.I and my Father are one. He intended to meet the jeers of the wicked; for they might allege that the power of God did not at all belong to him, so that he could promise to his disciples that it would assuredly protect them. He therefore testifies that his affairs are so closely united to those of the Father, that the Father’s assistance will never be withheld from himself and his sheep The ancients made a wrong use of this passage to prove that Christ is (ὁμοούσιος) of the same essence with the Father. For Christ does not argue about the unity of substance, but about the agreement which he has with the Father, so that whatever is done by Christ will be confirmed by the power of his Father.
Jesus was claiming full equality to Yahweh of the OT there!
 

Yeshua1

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Fiction. God the Son takes direction from the Father, thus operates in subordination to the Father. And the Holy Spirit takes direction from both God the Son and God the Father.

For example Hebrews 1:1-2 says God the Father made the world through God the Son. Therefore God the Son was utilized by God the Father to accomplish His purpose. This pattern can be found again and again in scripture.

God the Son is fully equal in His divine nature, His divine essence, but operates in subordination, both before the incarnation and during the incarnation. Any yes, God the Son did not grasp equality with God but submitted to becoming in the likeness of a human, thus operating from a more subordinate condition.
Jesus agreed to be subordinate status while incarnated here on earth, but not any longer once ascended back to Heaven!
 

Yeshua1

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Matthew 10:40
“He who receives you receives Me, and he who receives Me receives Him who sent Me.

Mar 9:37
“Whoever receives one child like this in My name receives Me; and whoever receives Me does not receive Me, but Him who sent Me.”

Thus the Father sent the Son, so the Son was operating in subordination to the Father.


Luke 4:18
“THE SPIRIT OF THE LORD IS UPON ME,
BECAUSE HE ANOINTED ME TO PREACH THE GOSPEL TO THE POOR.
HE HAS SENT ME TO PROCLAIM RELEASE TO THE CAPTIVES,

AND RECOVERY OF SIGHT TO THE BLIND,
TO SET FREE THOSE WHO ARE OPPRESSED,

And here we see that the Father "anointed" the Son, again showing subordination.

John 4:34
Jesus *said to them, “My food is to do the will of Him who sent Me and to accomplish His work.

Again and again scripture clearly teaches Christ was subordinate to the Father while incarnate. But other verses teach God the Son takes direction from the Father even before the incarnation.


Here is an example of pre-incarnate subordination.

John 6:38
“For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.

The pre-incarnate God the Son took the God the Father's direction before the incarnation.




all of that happened due to the Incarnation, as Jesus agreed to be under limitations while here, but not any longer!
 
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