1689Dave
Well-Known Member
The elect always overcome sin and repent.So no elect ever commits a divorce, nor gets remarried?
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The elect always overcome sin and repent.So no elect ever commits a divorce, nor gets remarried?
Is that a yes or a no?The elect always overcome sin and repent.
“Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.” (1 John 3:9–10) (KJV 1900)Is that a yes or a no?
So no saved person will ever get a divorce, and especially never remarry, correct?“Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.” (1 John 3:9–10) (KJV 1900)
Probably not.So no saved person will ever get a divorce, and especially never remarry, correct?
You have a view on this that cannot be supported by the scriptures, as that view means that the death of Jesus cannot overcome the sin of divorce.Probably not.
Is this the only sin that he cannot cleanse? How about ... committing sexual sins?
“For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,” (Hebrews 10:26) (NASB95)You have a view on this that cannot be supported by the scriptures, as that view means that the death of Jesus cannot overcome the sin of divorce.
Is this the only sin that he cannot cleanse? How about murder or committing sexual sins?
Every divorced and remarried person was never saved? That is really bad theology!“For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,” (Hebrews 10:26) (NASB95)
This means the person was never saved in the first place.
NOTHING to do about divorce, but was about going back to Judaism and the temple sacrificial system, and not trusting in Jesus to save them!“For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,” (Hebrews 10:26) (NASB95)
This means the person was never saved in the first place.
Not a perpetual/continual state, or else you deny that the blood of Jesus can cleanse from all sin, and call God a liar!
Are you holding to then the same view as dave1689 that 2 Christians who divorced and then remarried must show real repentance by divorcing each other?Hi Yeshua1,
Thanks for contributing to this thread that was formed due to my original post. May God bless you mightily.
I'll just make a couple of comments and hope that you take them in the spirit in which they are intended.
One of the reasons that I believe that divorce does not dissolve a marriage is that in chapter 3 of the book of Jeremiah, God clearly says that He had given Israel a bill of divorce:
"And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also."
Jeremiah 3:8
And then He says a little later in that same chapter that He is (not "was") married to her (Israel):
"Turn, O backsliding children, saith the LORD; for I am married unto you: and I will take you one of a city, and two of a family, and I will bring you to Zion:"
Jeremiah 3:14
Another reason that I believe that remarriage after divorce from a God-honored marriage does not dissolve a marriage is what God plainly says in the book of Romans:
"For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man."
Does not this plainly teach that the adultery continues as long as this woman's husband lives?
Still another reason that I believe that divorce and remarriage does not dissolve a marriage is that Jesus said that remarriage after divorce from a valid marriage is adultery. In this context, "adultery" is a very simple word with a very plain meaning. It is a sin that has only applies to a current, ongoing marriage. How then, can the idea that adultery nullifies a marriage be reconciled with the clear meaning of this word?
I completely agree with you that the blood of Jesus Christ does indeed cleanse us from all sin, but God clearly teaches us in His Word that it does not change sin into something righteous, and if we continue in sin, then it is still sin and it still needs to be repented of. Must we change the plain meaning of repentance so that it no longer results in a deliberate ceasing from the sin that is repented of? Are we to believe that if a habitual thief was saved and continued to steal from others that this is acceptable in the eyes a loving and holy God? Does the blood of Christ have power to save but no power to change how we live?
Thanks again. If we disagree, I hope that we can still be friends. I have prayed that God will bless you.
Brother Bruce
So Jews didn't need to repent from sin?NOTHING to do about divorce, but was about going back to Judaism and the temple sacrificial system, and not trusting in Jesus to save them!
I think it is probably true if they did not repent.Every divorced and remarried person was never saved? That is really bad theology!
Are you holding to then the same view as dave1689 that 2 Christians who divorced and then remarried must show real repentance by divorcing each other?
The way I see it, divorce doesn't exist today in God's eyes. It was an Old Covenant provision not included in the New Covenant. All divorce today is of pagan origin and meaningless. Paul tells believers deserted by unbelievers to be reconciled or remain single.My basic answer is "yes" but please allow me to explain:
I do believe that if two people who had never been married before in God's eyes divorce and then one of them "remarries" that God clearly calls that person an adulterer and requires that person to repent (in the Bible sense of this word). As a Bible believer I don't see that there is any way around this.
This would require what the world calls a "divorce" and the resultant acceptance of all lawful civil responsibilities that go along with this. But I believe that, as Christians, we should look at things the way that God sees them (regardless of the consequences), and I believe that God wouldn't consider this to be "divorce" at all, but rather a turning away from sinful living. I believe that this is what a true child of God will do once they come to an understanding of what God teaches on this subject, and that they will do so out of childlike faith in His Word and out of obedience to God because they love Him. I believe that God always honors obedience and that He can resolve things that seem impossible to us when our eyes are on Him and we follow Him.
"Trust in the LORD with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding.
In all thy ways acknowledge him, and he shall direct thy paths."
Proverbs 3:5-6
Respectfully,
Brother Bruce
Hebrews in THAT passage was referring to the specific sinning of rejecting Jesus as the sacrificial Lamb for sins, and going back to temple Judaism!So Jews didn't need to repent from sin?
Repenting as defined by not divorcing from the person now remarried?I think it is probably true if they did not repent.
Repenting = stop committing adultery.Repenting as defined by not divorcing from the person now remarried?
And per you, we can only do that by divorcing again!Repenting = stop committing adultery.