standingfirminChrist
New Member
what in the world is an everlasting cutting off? sounds like CTR was whacked out on some strong drugs when he penned that one.
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I've never seen one that uses "indefinitely", except the one you posted. But, there are many that translate it as the original Hebrew intent of a limited duration of time. The LXX translates it as "aionion", which is age lasting; Rotherham's Emphasized; Young's (which is based on the TR); the CLV.Does anyone know one other translation that uses indefinately for the Hebrew owlam?
I put up two LXX translations, Bretons being one of the more popular. They translated it as everlasting and eternal. The same Greek word #166 is used for describing the Eternal or everlasting God in Genesis in the LXX. Is He only for a long but limited time? This is the hurdle that you cannot clear with your argument.It is the same with owlam. Either HE is eternal/everlasting, or He is not.Same word in Hebrew (owlam), and the same word in Greek.Originally posted by Hope of Glory:
The LXX translates it as "aionion", which is age lasting;
There are many, many people who are capable of distinguishing between a long, but limited time and everlasting (and especially, eternal, which only God is eternal).
The LXX BTW is a copy of the inspired Hebrew, but in some places it becomes more of a dynamic equivalent/paraphrase than it does a literal translation.Why would the Holy Spirit one word that doesn't mean something, when there's another word that does?
You stated that the LXX supported your position. I demonstrated from the LXX that it did not. Either God is eternal, or He isn't, and then we are all in trouble.You need to prove your position based on the use of owlam in the Hebrew Scriptures, as the LXX translation is in agreement with my original statement.Originally posted by Hope of Glory:
That's funny! You quoted verses that use two different things in the Greek, one of which actually does mean "everlasting".
Can you not distinguish between the two?
Because of their overwhelming Catholic beliefs, the KJV translators could not.
Humor me just for a sec - all languages use different words that mean the same thing. If we look at the words eternal and everlasting in English, the definition is interchangeable. The words everlasting and eternal in Greek are a similar concept.Originally posted by Hope of Glory:
That's funny! You quoted verses that use two different things in the Greek, one of which actually does mean "everlasting".
Can you not distinguish between the two?
Because of their overwhelming Catholic beliefs, the KJV translators could not.
We have to talk about the Hebrew owlam and its equivalent in the LXX before we can go onto the NT.Please refrain from side-stepping the main point of my post since the beginning of this thread.The term is owlam, and it means eternal/everlasting in the context as noted.Originally posted by Hope of Glory:
That's funny! You quoted verses that use two different things in the Greek, one of which actually does mean "everlasting".
Can you not distinguish between the two?
Because of their overwhelming Catholic beliefs, the KJV translators could not.
That's debatable. There's no hard fast scriptural rule that parables cannot contain proper names. I do, tough, acknowlege that we cannot know for certain if it's a parable or not. The reason I believe it to be a parable is because it reads and breathes like a parable.Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
The rich man and Lazarus is not a parable [Luke 16:19-31]. Whenever God uses men or women's names they were actual living people. I learned this in Bible College. A parable does not use personal names.
Here are some texts that underlie my "unwarranted" view (sorry for the length, but in the words of Bugs Bunny: "you asked for it"):Originally posted by Ray Berrian:
Where in the Bible does it say that the wicked will after awhile be annihilated? And how did you evolve into this unwarranted view?
The word "owlam" in Hebrew does not mean eternal, nor does it mean everlasting. Eternal means without beginning or ending (only God is eternal) and everlasting means without ending. "Owlam" is a time of limited duration, which is supported by the use of the Greek word "aionion" in the LXX. Sadly, both have been translated as "eternal" (among other things), which creates much confusion. </font>[/QUOTE]If it is translated by AIONION there, my opinion is that this argues for it meaning "eternal" (Or "everlasting")Originally posted by Hope of Glory:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> The word owlam in Hebrew means eternal or everlasting in this context.
So I do think we have to be careful about being too strong on either side. AIWNIOS/AIWNION is used to refer to something eternal, such as the life we gain when we trust in Christ. But it need not only be used to refer to something without end."In general, the word depicts that of which the horizon is not in view . . . (p.16). If the horizon of the extermination spoken of by Paul in 2 Thessalonians 1:9 is simply not in view, then we can see that what Paul says in 1 Corinthians 15:22 can truly occur. The same all who are dying in Adam, which includes some who incur eonian extermination, can indeed eventually be vivified in Christ. The Bible, in fact, does not speak of judgment and condemnation, death and destruction, hades and Gehenna, or any of these serious consequences of sin, as unending. It may refer to them as not having the end in view, but none of these fearful works of God can keep Him from achieving His will (1Tim.2:4); reconciling all through the blood of Christ's cross (Col.1:20, and becoming All in all (1 Cor.15:28).