Originally posted by gb93433:
Originally posted by Scott J:
I am more interested in dealing with what scripture does say than what it doesn't say. That has nothing to do with the direct command in question and its continuing context.
That is where you have chosen to violate recognized hermeneutical prinicples. Often scripture is like listening to one side of a conversation. The verse found in 1 Timothy 2:12 is not a command. I see no Greek verb that is an imperative. It is a pres. act. ind. The verse found in 1 Timothy 5:23 is an imperative. “No longer drink water exclusively, but use a little wine for the sake of your stomach and your frequent ailments.” So if one goes along with your reasoning then you are commanded to drink wine and a statement Paul made about women that is not a command. What you are practicing is exactly the opposite. You are abstaining from wine as a command and not allowing women to stand before men that is not a command but a statement.
I see the statement Paul made about women in I Timothy 2:12 as a practice but not a command.
So the conversation goes something like this?
"God through Paul: I allow not the practice of women teaching nor usurping authority over men.
The reader: I disagree.
God: Oh, well that practice must not apply to you."
I do not see the command Paul gave to Timothy about drinking wine as a command that applies to me personally.
Why did he tell Timothy that? There is a principle there and a valuable one when we are also told to avoid drunkeness.
I view each of those as principles and practices but not as commands to be personally applied.
What principle or practice established by God for the church do you think is optional?
But I have never objected to a woman teaching even teenage boys... though it seems to take a pretty strong woman to do so.
To only be concerned with what scripture says is to say you only hear one side of a conversation.
To add the other side of the conversation so that it agrees with a preconceived bias is to negate the value of both sides of the conversation. Are you telling me that you don't think scripture is sufficient?
I believe that "both sides of the conversation" are best understood by allowing scripture to interpret scripture within the immediate and whole context.
Since scripture affirms male leadership in these type roles and since there is no NT example of a woman performing these roles... I believe the conversation goes like this:
God through Paul: "Women are not allowed to teach nor usurp authority over men within the congregation."
The rest of scripture: "Amen."
When Paul wrote the letter to Timothy we do not know what the context was unless we take a look at other historical documents that indicate the historical context.
Yes we can. By looking at other passages that deal with the relationships between men and women.
Scripture can only be correctly interpreted in light of its historical context.
That is interpreting the infallible by the fallible.
Women teaching teenage boys is against the historical practice of rabbis teaching boys .
Cite the scripture that establishes this. The traditions of the Jews were not respected by Paul or Jesus. But we aren't talking about traditions. We are talking about a plain, direct statement.
In fact if you are only willing to deal with what scripture says and not concerned with what it does not then your church if it has Sunday School is in direct violation of a historical practice of not having Sunday School.
Really? What scripture forbids Sunday School? The Bible clearly establishes that the churches assembled frequently and even daily to be taught the scripture. To say that SS is a violation of scripture requires proof.
Today, there are churches that believe Sunday School is unbiblical and counterproductive.
Then they should replace it with some type of regular training that is productive.