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Jesus Christ: The Atonement For The Human Race

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Saved-By-Grace

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God thru the death of Jesus has provided the means by which any sinner can get reconciled back to God, but onlky the Elect will avail themselves of it!

No you speak in riddles! God has provided the means for ALL sinners, but only the elect will be saved, because God will only "call" the elect? In which case, God is insincere with the non-elect!
 

Saved-By-Grace

Well-Known Member
The reason I like "propitiation" in 2:2 is this has the advocacy of Christ in mind (a mediator able to effect forgiveness).

But I am also in favor of choosing the word which encompasses the widest range given the context of the passage.

We have to choose the word that the original language allows, and it seems best from LXX use of the Hebrew, that "sin-offering" is the term. I am open to sensible suggestions though
 

Yeshua1

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No you speak in riddles! God has provided the means for ALL sinners, but only the elect will be saved, because God will only "call" the elect? In which case, God is insincere with the non-elect!
No, God gives them the same message as the Elect, and they made the decision to keep on rejecting Christ!
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Jesus death was meant to save only those who would be able to receive him to get saved, his elect....

This is a faithful saying and worthy of all acceptance. For to this end we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of those who believe. These things command and teach.
 

Yeshua1

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This is a faithful saying and worthy of all acceptance. For to this end we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of those who believe. These things command and teach.
God only saves those whom He has a covenant relationship with. correct?
 

JonShaff

Fellow Servant
Site Supporter
We have to choose the word that the original language allows, and it seems best from LXX use of the Hebrew, that "sin-offering" is the term. I am open to sensible suggestions though
Propitiation, to me, seems to also equate to "Appeasement" or "To Satisfy"--especially in context. The Lord Jesus' Death satisfied the Wrath of God (God's Justice), but is applied (and He intercedes) to Those who have placed their Faith in Him.
 

Saved-By-Grace

Well-Known Member
Propitiation, to me, seems to also equate to "Appeasement" or "To Satisfy"--especially in context. The Lord Jesus' Death satisfied the Wrath of God, but is applied (and He intercedes) to Those who have placed their Faith in Him.

"Propitiation", is the choice of some English versions of the Bible, following the Latin Vulgate. However, "sin-offering" is what the Greek means as used in the LXX and defined by the Greek lexicon of Liddell and Scott.
 

Saved-By-Grace

Well-Known Member
Jesus said that he came for just His lost sheep, and only them would be able to hear His voice, as he knew them, and they will know Him....

in John chapter 5, Jesus was in conversation with some Jews who wanted to murder Him. see verses 16-18. In verse 19 we read, "So Jesus said to them...", and the rest of the chapter is to these Jews. In verses 24-25, Jesus tells these same Jews, "Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life. Truly, truly, I say to you, an hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live." And, in verse 34, Jesus says to them, "...I say these things so that you may be saved"

here we have Jesus speaking to Jews who wanted to murder Him, and He says that He wants to SAVE THEM!
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
God only saves those whom He has a covenant relationship with. correct?
"Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." Romans 10:13

For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. Acts 2:21
 

JonShaff

Fellow Servant
Site Supporter
"Propitiation", is the choice of some English versions of the Bible, following the Latin Vulgate. However, "sin-offering" is what the Greek means as used in the LXX and defined by the Greek lexicon of Liddell and Scott.
I do not believe that is an effective way of doing word studies. If Propitiation has a theological implication for Christ and His Work, how could the LXX use it in a congruent way. It is similar in that it means "Appeasement" per the LALS.
 

JonShaff

Fellow Servant
Site Supporter
This is how my pea brain understands it

Propitiation = appeasement/something of GOD is satisfied--Namely, His Justice

Atonement = Man is made "At ONe" with God--To bring back into Favor/harmony
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The lost are of their father, Satan, as there are only children of God by the new birth, or of the kingdom of Satan, by the physical birth!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
"Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." Romans 10:13

For everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved. Acts 2:21
Those who will be able to do such as the ones who are His own elect....
 
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