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KJV vs. NKJV: which do you prefer?
- Thread starter alexander284
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Logical. Quite logical.
Even more logical......
“Easter” or “Passover” in Acts 12:4? - King James Version Today
37818
Well-Known Member
When Tyndale translated the Greek New Testament the English speaking Christian's called it Easter. Was not until Tyndale translated the Hebrew he invented the English word "Passover."
The Passover became Easter with the resurrection of Christ. If today you ever call the Christian observance Easter you are being a hypocrite about this.
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It does not seem to be more logical to me since its explanation could be considered to conflict with the context at Acts 12:4.
The immediate context of Acts 12:4 demonstrated that king Herod was aware that his earlier action of vexing certain of the church “pleased the Jews” (Acts 12:3). The context also revealed that Herod “proceeded further” to take another action that he thought would please the Jews. Would Herod be continuing to please the Jews if he supposedly waited to observe a pagan holiday or festival? Would the celebrations and practices associated with a pagan festival please or offend the Jews? Does the context actually maintain that Herod in proceeding further to take Peter would then do something contradictory to this action intended to please the Jews?
It was actually Luke that used the Greek word pascha for the time for which Herod was waiting since this verse gives no indication that Herod was being directly quoted. The Bible verse or context does not directly say that Herod was keeping or observing pascha. “The people” of Acts 12:4 could be referring to or would be including the Jews mentioned in verse 3. In Acts 12:11, it refers to “the expectation of the people of the Jews.” Therefore according to the context, the Jews were clearly the people that Herod wanted to please again by his further action. Therefore, nothing in the verse and context proves that Herod could not have been waiting for the Jews to finish keeping their pascha so that he could bring Peter forth and please the Jews again. In other words, the context indicates that Herod did not want to risk displeasing the Jews by executing Peter during their Jewish pascha and may not indicate whether Herod personally had any scruples or principles against executing Peter during a festival. Herod also would have no reason to seek to displease the Jews and to honor and respect the church that he was vexing by waiting until after any claimed church celebration. Therefore, the clear evidence from the context clearly supports the understanding that the Jews would be the ones keeping the pascha [also called the feast of unleavened bread in Luke 22:1] instead of the assertion that Herod had to be the one keeping it. If Herod was also keeping it, the context indicates that it was the Jewish pascha that he would be keeping and not some pagan festival nor any Christian celebration.
Moved by the Holy Spirit, Luke could definitely have used the Greek word in the same sense as he did in Luke 22:1. Comparing Scripture with Scripture, the context of Acts 12:3-4 is in agreement with the understanding that this Greek word was used in the same sense as in Luke 22:1.
How would it be logical for Herod to think that waiting for the observation of a Christian holiday would please the Jews?
It seems that it was assumed that the KJV's rendering had to be correct so an effort was made to invent a rationalization for it.
On the good side, it was at least admitted that the other KJV-only claim that Easter referred to a pagan feast was incorrect.
It seems that it was assumed that the KJV's rendering had to be correct so an effort was made to invent a rationalization for it.
On the good side, it was at least admitted that the other KJV-only claim that Easter referred to a pagan feast was incorrect.
Well, ACTUALLY, they often left pascha untranslated, calling it "pask", etc.
No, passover remained PASSOVER. Remember, passover commemorates an entirely-different event than Easter does. And God does not command us to observe Easter, but He commanded Israel to observe passover FOR -EVER.
Yes, Herod was under orders from Caesar to please & mollify the Jews. And Herod knew the Jews wouldn't even touch Peter, as is seen in John 18:8.
Not at all. That's from a KJVO site, & much of its "info" is incorrect, as is most on the info on any KJVO site, such as "Pascha meant Easter to Luke." That's impossible, since Easter didn't exist in Luke's time.
37818
Well-Known Member
Easter an English form of that term meaning the resurrection of our Passover Christ.
37818
Well-Known Member
My favorate edtion of the NKJV:
https://www.amazon.com/Bible-Versio...QQXTKPXJ14A&psc=1&refRID=0EMW018W6QQXTKPXJ14A
https://www.amazon.com/Bible-Versio...QQXTKPXJ14A&psc=1&refRID=0EMW018W6QQXTKPXJ14A
But that's NOT what the Greek 'pascha' meant in ancient times.
37818
Well-Known Member
That Enghish word Easter, as well as the English word "church." So?
Its a mistranslation!
Oh, it was not!
Passover and Easter were synonyms, just look at this from a Geneva Bible:
Deuteronomy 16
Exodus 23
see pp. 84 & 202 here:
1599 Geneva Bible | Monergism
37818
Well-Known Member
Tyndale was the first to use Easter for the Greek tranliteration and the first to use Passover to translate the Hebrew word.
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The fact that the two words were used as synonyms in the 1500's does not demonstrate that present-day English readers would consider them to be synonyms.
The fact that they had been used as synonyms is evidence that the KJV could have used the rendering "Easter" for the Jewish Passover. There is evidence from the 1600's that the KJV translators themselves did not put the rendering Easter in their text since it is claimed to be one of the 14 changes introduced by a prelate or prelates.
Because "Easter" in the KJV has been understood or interpreted with three different meanings [a pagan festival, Christian celebration, and Jewish Passover], it would indicate that Passover is the better rendering if the intended meaning is Passover since it does not suggest the other two meanings that some try to read into the passage.
In a sermon preached on Easter in 1608, KJV translator Lancelot Andrewes stated: “Origen in his seventh upon Exodus, he saith, our Easter-day far passeth the Jewish Easter” (Chapman, Before the King’s, p. 40). In this sermon, Andrewes clearly used the term Easter for the Passover.
The Jewish Passover would have been the only way the original readers would have taken it as meaning!
At the time of the story recorded down, would have meant Jewish Passover....
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