37818
Well-Known Member
No. The resurrection of Christ did exist. The English term Easter in translation and yes, our word Passover beginning in the OT had not been used until Tyndale.
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KJV vs. NKJV: which do you prefer?
- Thread starter alexander284
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There was no "official" celebration of the date of Jesus' resurrection in Luke's day, & if there had been, neither Herod nor the Jews woulda observed it.
And clearly, the AV makers knew Easter from passover, recognizing Easter as one of the 2 holiest days of the year, along with Christmas. They added an "Easter-Finder" to the extratextual material of the AV 1611. And the word 'passover' had come into general use.
The word 'pascha' appears 29 times in the NT Greek. It was rendered 'passover' 28 of those times. There was no good reason for the one 'Easter' rendering, except that somebody goofed.
37818
Well-Known Member
'Pascha' is a transliteration from the Hebrew פּסח.
Historically Jesus was resurrected during the Passover week. And our word "Passover" was from Tyndale. The same person who prior to translating the OT, was the first to use Easter to translate the Greek pascha.
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Why would the Holy Spirit have them use a term that have meant nothing to those who read it at that time written down to us?
Easter is gotten by reading back into the nyext current understanding of that time, but NOT what it would have been seen as meaning when first written down!
37818
Well-Known Member
When Luke wrote both his books he knew of the risen Christ our Passover. The event cited in Acts of the Apostles 12:4 was during a post resurrection Passover. We do refer to it as Easter time today, do we not? When in fact the KJV tranlators when they did translate Acts of the Apostles 12:4 they did use the term Easter.
Should have used Passover....
37818
Well-Known Member
They deliberately did not. And they did not fix it. 1611 to 1769, the reading remained Easter.
So was wrong until fixed!
But Luke did NOT know of any special observance of it, or any observance called 'Easter' that either Herod or the Jews woulda observed. And the AV translators likely copied it from the Bishop's Bible.
And thus, simply left it WRONG.
The Holy Spirit did not inspire them to translate it as Easter then?
37818
Well-Known Member
Can you give me the earlist date Easter as used in the KJV was said to be wrong?
1611
Likely soon as it was published.
Rather than a tiresome tit for tat, how about someone go to the Bodleian Library at Oxford and check the 1602 Bishops Bible with annotations by the King James translators. Perhaps that would tell us something actual and factual. I recommend Robocop do it, since he is the constant purveyor without proof that Easter in Acts 12:4 is a goof.
37818
Well-Known Member
Until Tyndale translated it "Easter" it was not yet translated Easter. Until Tyndale invented the English word "Passover" that word did not yet exist in our English.
37818
Well-Known Member
Tyndale's Bible 1534. The NT used Easter and OT used Passover. KJV 1611 kept Easter for Acts 12:4.
Don't send Robycop all that way for nothing [I believe just some of the Gospels have annotations, not the rest of the NT].
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