TRWhy would a more formally equivalent translation be more in keeping with the doctrine of verbal inspiration?
You are absolutely correct here. And that, my friends, is a rarity.
Please tell me what you think the "worst source texts" are?
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TRWhy would a more formally equivalent translation be more in keeping with the doctrine of verbal inspiration?
You are absolutely correct here. And that, my friends, is a rarity.
Please tell me what you think the "worst source texts" are?
Based on what?The TR more often than not follows the truly better NT Greek text which is better than most modern Bibles. The constant text is always the 100% text. The TR readings more often than not follow 90+% readings were most of the modern often <1% text reading. Yes, there are issues.
That the TR more often than not agrees with family 35 of NT manuscript readings.Based on what?
I meant based on what is it the "truly better" etc..That the TR more often than not agrees with family 35 of NT manuscript readings.
The NT text of family 35.I meant based on what is it the "truly better" etc..
That the TR more often than not agrees with family 35 of NT manuscript readings.
A good example, I think, is where f35 omits ". . . and fire," in Matthew 3:11, being 80%.of the readings. 20% of the Matthew texts have it, as does the TR.But is not Family 35 only about 250 or so manuscripts? Isn't it only a sub group of Byzantine manuscripts? Why not use them all? Please do not get me wrong I have become to believe the Byzantine Text is very accurate as well. But what about the fewer times when the KJV agrees with Critical Texts against the Byzantine or Majority Texts?
I don't think you understand my question. What makes them BETTER?The NT text of family 35.
Understand a textual reading is either the same as the God given text or not. The constant witness is always the 100% reading across all manuscript types. So what would be the actual better reading? There are different causes for varant readings. The two main camps, one camp the identified correct readings are mostly very small percentages of all the witness texts. The other camp the identified correct readings mostly approach the constant witness, typically a majority text.I don't think you understand my question. What makes them BETTER?
I understand textual criticism. What makes your view BETTER?Understand a textual reading is either the same as the God given text or not. The constant witness is always the 100% reading across all manuscript types. So what would be the actual better reading? There are different causes for varant readings. The two main camps, one camp the identified correct readings are mostly very small percentages. The other camp the idetified correct readings mostly approach the constant witness, typically a majority text.
My view wants what is actually God's word, not the corrupted reading. My view would only be better if you do not think identifying the correct reading matters.I understand textual criticism. What makes your view BETTER?
That's my point. Both camps want that so what determines a corrupted reading in your view and WHY?My view wants what is actually God's word, not the corrupted reading. My view would only be better if you do not think identifying the correct reading matters.
Pick one variant to look at. You understand textual criticism. What is believed to be the reason(s) for said variant?That's my point. Both camps want that so what determines a corrupted reading in your view and WHY?
NKJBKJV vs. NKJV: which do you prefer?
Yep, I got one, my brother and I call it the crazy man's bible.Of course not!
Sometimes I'll consult the precious 'Geneva Bible' —some of its notes are good for giggles.
Galatians 1:8-9KJV... The only one I read, study and quote from... Its been serving me well for over 50 years, I'm old also and don't like change, why change and no one has given me a reason to change?... Brother Glen