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KJV Wrongly Translates the Hebrew

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Stratton7

Member
Guess this is where the Kjv "inspiration:" kicks in! The "Holy Spirit" revealed to them out of the blue to add it in!
You show your lack of understanding as not all those who believe that the KJB is the Bible believe that the translators were inspired. This is double inspiration and is not what we have here in my opinion. The text is still inspired though through preservation.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Yet, you have shown that some of the other translations used words that do not mean sick or incurable, such as deep, stubborn, unsearchable. Why? Is that all they say it means? In your opinion, is that true only of the LXX? If not, how many translations do you believe are imperfect translations?

you have still not answered my very simple question, are you KJVO?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
The fact that you want to distract with an ad hominem argument indicates you feel the weakness of your position.

There is no weakness in my OP. I have noticed your attacking method here because I have questioned the KJVs wrong choice of word in this verse. All that I have read from you is trying to show that what I have said is wrong and your feeble attempt to defend the KJV. You are more interested in trying to win your argument by any means. I have no problem with all that I have said in the OP and subsequent posts.

You just cannot be honest and answer if you are KJVO
 

37818

Well-Known Member
There is no weakness in my OP. I have noticed your attacking method here because I have questioned the KJVs wrong choice of word in this verse. All that I have read from you is trying to show that what I have said is wrong and your feeble attempt to defend the KJV. You are more interested in trying to win your argument by any means. I have no problem with all that I have said in the OP and subsequent posts.

You just cannot be honest and answer if you are KJVO
Defending a translation used in the KJV does not make one a KJVO.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
אנשׁ

The KJV translates the word in,
2 Samuel 12:15, ". . . it was very sick . . . ."
Job 34:6, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Isaiah 17:11, ". . . desperate . . . ."
Jeremiah 15:18, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Jeremiah 17:9, ". . . desperately wicked . . . ."
Jeremiah 17:16, ". . . the woeful . . . ."
Jeremiah 30:12, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Jeremiah 30:;15, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Micah 1:9, ". . . incurable . . . ."

“The heart is deceitfull and wicked aboue all things, who can knowe it?” (Geneva Bible 1587)

Apart from the Geneva Bible, no other English translation around this time, uses “wicked”.

NKJV - “The heart is deceitful above all things, And desperately wicked; Who can know it?

NLT - “The human heart is the most deceitful of all things, and desperately wicked. Who really knows how bad it is?
 
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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
אנשׁ

The KJV translates the word in,
2 Samuel 12:15, ". . . it was very sick . . . ."
Job 34:6, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Isaiah 17:11, ". . . desperate . . . ."
Jeremiah 15:18, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Jeremiah 17:9, ". . . desperately wicked . . . ."
Jeremiah 17:16, ". . . the woeful . . . ."
Jeremiah 30:12, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Jeremiah 30:;15, ". . . incurable . . . ."
Micah 1:9, ". . . incurable . . . ."

In have already shown these! though I missed Jer 17:16
 

rsr

<b> 7,000 posts club</b>
Moderator
If you're going to debate this, keep it civil. There's been enough ad hominem and snark already. In addition, this is in the wrong forum, so it is being sent to the correct one. Keep it clean or it will be closed.
 

timtofly

Well-Known Member
spiritual. the NASB is correct. "“The heart is more deceitful than all else And is desperately sick; Who can understand it?"
What is spiritual sickness? Are you saying "being wicked" is "physical"?

I let God know my heart is sick? I let my physician know my heart is wicked?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Me (below)



I could say the same about you in that you don’t believe it to be so!
Perhaps we shouldn’t derail too far from the OP.

John 1:18,
KJV, No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
ESV, No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known
NASB 1977, 1995, No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten God, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
ISV, No one has ever seen God. The unique God, who is close to the Father's side, has revealed him
NET, No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known

Textual evidence for the reading with "God", is older and stronger. Which of these two are "Inspired" by the Holy Spirit?
 

Dave G

Well-Known Member
Why did the KJV use the English “desperately wicked”, when the Hebrew does not mean this?
Good question.
It appears as if it means, "mortally-ill".
The Hebrew verb is, “ʼânash”, and means, “be weak, sick” or “incurably diseased”.
I agree.
It can also mean "desperately sick".

Strong's Hebrew: 605. אָנַשׁ (anash) -- to be weak, sick
Apart from the Geneva Bible, no other English translation around this time, uses “wicked”.
I've taken a brief look at varying English translations from the period 1390 to 1611 and it appears that you are correct.
However, in the Spanish Reina Valera of 1602, we find this:

" Engañoso es el corazón más que todas las cosas, y perverso; ¿quién lo conocerá?"

For those that do not know Spanish ( or have at least a working knowledge of it like I do ), punch that into "Google Translate" and see what you get. :)
 
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Dave G

Well-Known Member
what is even more confusing, as I was only discussing this today with a friend, that the KJV's translation teams were the very best in the Church at the time, most were brilliant scholars. And yet they failed, not only here, but as I have posted before, on texts on the Deity of Jesus Christ, like Titus 2:13, and 2 Peter 1:1, where they again get the Greek grammar wrong! Maybe the Lord allowed there to show some, that the KJV is just another Version of the Bible, a work of fallible human beings, who were not "Inspired" by God the Holy Spirit.
Interesting point.
Speaking for myself, I have never maintained that the AV is an absolutely perfect translation of the Bible...

But I do believe that it is the best and most accurate to what I believe are God's preserved words in both Greek and Hebrew, using the English of its time.
Even more so, I also believe it to be superior to anything ( in English ) that is in widespread print today.

That said, what exactly is the point of this thread?
To prove that the AV isn't perfect?
I actually agree with you on that point.;)

As for what it should have been translated as, I agree with @rlvaughn in his post # 20.
 
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