SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
The Nkjv is stating that God was His father, and that Jesus is the very Son of God, so?
you have not read what I have said!
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The Nkjv is stating that God was His father, and that Jesus is the very Son of God, so?
I did, must have misunderstood you!you have not read what I have said!
What we have are Bible VERSIONS. No one of them is "the" Bible, to he exclusion of all others.So you don’t call anything a Bible?
What we have are Bible VERSIONS. No one of them is "the" Bible, to he exclusion of all others.
same as the Living Bible, just paraphrases!How about the Good News Bible? Or the Message? Or the Readers Digest Bible?
same as the Living Bible, just paraphrases!
You mock using scripture? Tsk tsk (and “make” not “set” would be correct.)The truth shall set them free!
That’s just it, doctrines are changed because of the vast amount of differing words used.ALL reputable translations are the word of God to us in the native language, as they would be infallible witness to the truths and doctrines of God!
How about the Good News Bible? Or the Message? Or the Readers Digest Bible?
You really think the Message bible is “infallible witness to the truths and doctrines of God!”?same as the Living Bible, just paraphrases!
I understand there are versions, but that’s not what I asked. Is there anything that contain the words of God that you call a “Bible?”What we have are Bible VERSIONS. No one of them is "the" Bible, to he exclusion of all others.
My responce of overwhelming evidence is for John 1:18. You confused post's.. That's ok though.Firstly, it is NOT correct to suggest "The evidence is overwhelming against you on this"!
The earliest Greek manuscripts that include the words as part of the Epistle, are Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Vaticanus, both of the 4th century. And the Codex Alexandrinus, of the 5th. It is also part of ther text in the Old Latin, 2nd century, and the majority of ancient Versions, including the Latin Vulgate, 4th cent. Origen in the Greek, 3rd cent.
The oldest Greek manuscript that omits the words, is the Codex know as K, which dates from the 9th cent. ONE manuscript of the Old Latin, a few of the Latin Vulgate. And ONE of the Coptic! That is it!
My responce of overwhelming evidence is for John 1:18. You confused post's.. That's ok though.
Every valid translation.I understand there are versions, but that’s not what I asked. Is there anything that contain the words of God that you call a “Bible?”
Your opinion is misleading and wrong. They are not completely different.Yes but the thought is the same just worded differently. The reason the NKJV is not a revised version of the KJV, they are unaffiliated.The thought that the New King James version is in fact a new version of the KJV is false. They just wanted to sell Bibles so they stole the name. misleading people in to thinking that it is the New King James. In my opinion they are completely different.
MB
Through preservation of the originals that were inspired, those words don’t cease to be inspired today in the KJB.
Not mock, just stating a truism!You mock using scripture? Tsk tsk (and “make” not “set” would be correct.)
So my Nas and eEv deny the trinity, Jesus as lord, atonement, physical resurrection, second coming etc?That’s just it, doctrines are changed because of the vast amount of differing words used.
said all "reputable" ones!You really think the Message bible is “infallible witness to the truths and doctrines of God!”?
I know you said ALL translations but have you read this?
(Question for Yeshua1)
Then if the King James is part of those translations, it should be okay to call it a Bible (KJB).Every valid translation.
I disagree because of God’s promises to preserve His words. No one has the originals! Nor does older always mean better.The KJV does not have the same words as the preserved Scriptures in the original languages.