Hey, I am just telling you I have studied the subject for myself and reject the Wescott and Hort translations. In my mind a person would have to be crazy to accept translations by these two, but that is my own personal opinion.
But you still do not get it, I believe God preserved one inerrant translation because he promised to preserve his pure word. My faith is based on his promise, not scholarship.
But where was this "one inerrant translation" before the KJV? If it is preserved, we would have one then too. Or was the Bible not preserved before the KJV. You see, you cannot answer that because there wasn't one, yet the Bible was still preserved Just as God said. He NEVER said it would be in one translation.
Oh, and we don't use the Westcott and Hort text today. It is similar, but there are many differences. The NA27 and the USB4 are not just copies of the WH text.