It is more than unbelief; it is the wickedness and hardness of heart of men. They will not believe unless God changes their hearts. It is this that prevents men from entering. To say that it is merely a matter of believing is Pelagianism.
You are missing the point. I'm agreeing with you. This wickedness or "depravity" of man's nature within the Calvinistic system is certainly what prevents man's belief, but the point we are discussing is in regard to the satisfaction of justice by Christ's work on the cross. Calvin, Hodge and the others are in agreement with you on the nature of man's depravity but they differ from SOME regarding whether or not there are other legal impediments/obstacles preventing their salvation. That is the point we are discussing.
If men will sincerely believe, Christ will receive them. But they will not believe unless God gives them a new heart and a new spirit. This He has not done for all men.
Again, not the point I'm contending. We are talking about the Calvinistic views on atonement, not the needed work of regeneration. You keep shifting the discussion from the "L" to the "U" and the "I" of TULIP.
I can't think that I have heard any reputable theologian make such a comment. I suppose that there may be someone somewhere who thinks this. Perhaps you could find a quotation for me?
Look at the link I provided of quotes from Hodge, Shedd, Dabney and the like. What doctrinal disagreements do you suspect they are addressing in these quotes?
There is a variety of views among Reformed folk, just as there is among non-Reformed who vary
Ok, then explain the differences related to the various Calvinistic approaches to the satisfaction of Christ's work and show how I have misrepresented it.
the idea that Christ's blood is of insufficient value to atone for all who come to Him is gross and ridiculous.
Yet, there are some Calvinists who merely suggest that Christ's work was valuable enough to be sufficient while others actually say it IS sufficient. Do you see the difference in those claims? You don't have to agree with either view, but at least acknowledge the difference between saying something is valuable enough to satisfy justice for all mankind and saying it has satisfied the justice for all mankind. When you acknowledge that distinction then maybe you will see the divide among those in the reformed tradition and stop accusing me of not understanding.
I'm not sure if you really don't understand the Reformed Faith at all, or if you are just being mischievous; I suspect the latter.
Now you are turning the conversation to a personal attack by questioning my motives. I'm the only one here presenting historical quotes from actual reformed scholars who clearly believed and taught that
Christ’s work made full and perfect satisfaction for all. Do you agree with that, or not?