Further Clarification of my previous post
The following is a revision of the post I referred to you to. It is revised for clarity's sake:
The issue between justification by works versus by faith is dealt with by Paul in a very technical manner in Romans 3:24-5:2 but in the issue of the Law of Moses as opposed to works is specifically dealth with in Romans 3:27-28.
27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
There are several particulars that must be noted in this very technical and efficient treatise by Paul.
1. There is a question - "Where is boasting then?
This question is in response to the immediate preceding verses (vv. 23-26) where the problem (v. 23) and the provision for that problem is provided by God through the Person and work of Jesus Christ (vv. 24-26). In this provision there is absolutely nothing provided by the sinner to resolve the problem and that is precisely why it is introduced by the words I "freely by grace." The only involvement by the sinner in this provision is receiving it by faith as the provision is made the object of their faith:
"through faith IN his blood,"
"believeth IN Jesus."
Hence, their faith plays no part, provides no provision but simply acts as a receiver of what God has providey “freely by grace.” In direct contrast "faithfulness" is what you do for God but justifying faith is receiving what God did for you. Faith that justifies is faith that is “in” the right provision or object - the shed "blood" and Person of "Jesus."
Therefore, If God provides everthing in Christ without your help then the question that natural and directly follows is "Where is boasting then?" How can the receiver of this provision by faith boast when it is “freely by grace.”
2. Paul introduces the use of the term "law" in verse 27 in a general sense.
He introduces it in the sense of a PRINCIPLE in regard to this direct question. The question is "where is boasting then?" in the act of justification described in verses 24-26? What “law” is consistent with something “freely by grace” or with something you cannot boast in? Would the principle of “works” or the principle of “faith” exclude boasting??
By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
He did not say “the law of Moses” or “the law of God” but used the word “law” to equally describe “works” and “faith” as opposing principles in regard to boasting. Which one by principle excludes boasting? Which way of justification by principle excludes boasting? There is no room of syncretism here as they are placed in opposition to each other as principles or laws.
3. Paul does not leave this question without an answer but provides the answer:
of works? Nay: but by the law of faith
Justification by the principle of works provides for boasting as such texts as Ephesians 2:8 and Romans 11:6 clearly indicate. The principle of works for justification is clearly spelled out in Romans 2:6 “according to their deeds.” If justification is based ultimately “according to” their deeds rather than “freely by his grace” according to what Christ provided as represented “in his blood” than there is room to include what you do and thus room for boasting. However, if justification is by the principle of faith as described in Romans 3:24-26 where it is not more the receiver of God’s provision and simply embraces that provision as the object of faith then there is no room for boasting at all.
4. Hence, you are either justified by the principle of FAITH ALONE or you are justified by the principle of WORKS ALONE as they are placed in opposition to each other rather.
The principle of FAITH ALONE not only denies one can be justified by the law of Moses but denies any law that operates by the principle of works can be defined as justification by faith.
Romans 3:24-26 is justification "freely by grace" "through faith in his blood" believing "in Jesus" and therefore it is justification by the PRINCIPLE of faith without works:
Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
5. Therefore, by this PRINCIPLE of justification the ground is made level for both Jews and Gentiles under One God because the law of Moses is by PRINCIPLE justification by works:
29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
Since, the Law of Moses operates by the principle of works as defined by the law of Moses then it would exclude the Gentiles who do not have the law for justification by the principle of works. However, if the provision of Christ is the basis for justification by the principle of faith which merely receives it as the object of faith, then the Gentiles are included with the Jews on an equal basis for justification that focuses on Christ and His provision rather upon you and your works. Again, that principle of justification excludes “works” – your works – while including Christ’s works in your behalf “freely by his grace.”
6. Justification by faith without works does not invalidate the Law of God whether written upon stones (Rom. 2:12-13) or upon the conscience of man (Rom. 2:14-15) but is the ONLY WAY TO validate it.
In regard to the principle of “works” for justification, Paul has already proven that all men have failed and come short on the basis of their works – they have sinned (Rom. 3:23) and sin cannot justify anyone before God.
God must be just in justifying sinners and there is no other way for God to be just and the justifyer of sinners other than on the basis of the principle of faith in the provision of Christ as the basis for satisfying (propitiation) all of God’s demands against sin and entrance into heaven. By faith the sinner receives the substitutionary Person and work of Christ to have satisfied all of God’s just demands against him and God imputes it to his account.
26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
Christ acted in behalf of the believing sinner and the believer received it "freely by grace" through the principle of faith. Hence, they are justified by faith without works.
7. Now, the same question "where is boasting then" is applied to Abraham:
1 ¶ What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
The word "glory" represents the very exact same word translated "boasting" in Romans 3:27. Since the prinicple of justification by "works" provides boasting, Paul proceeds in a very systematic way to prove that Abraham was justified "WITHOUT WORKS" of any kind coming from His person but was justified by the works coming from the Person of Christ through IMPUTATION.
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
1. Justified by faith without works by grace (imputation by faith) - vv. 3-5
2. Remision of sins without divine ordinances - vv. 6-12
3. Justified by the principle of faith not by the principle of law - vv. 13-15
4. Justified by faith without any kind of personal performance - vv. 16-21
5. Justified by faith as a completed action at the point of faith in the gospel - 4:22-5:2CONCLUSION:
Every gospel of justification by is characterized by the priniciple of "works" is "another gospel" (Gal. 1:8-9), a false gospel, as the very essence of the gospel of Jesus Christ is the doctrine of justification. Only justification by the principle of "faith" without works excludes all boasting by men. Only the doctrine of justification correctly declares all men have already come short of God's standard of righteousness and Christ alone has satisifed and provided all that is necessary to justify sinners.
