Questions for those holding to KJVO Position

[Salty]

I'm going to assume the reason is because previous translations (like Tyndale, Geneva, Bishops') use it as well as the term being used by English Christians.

Since you do not want to answer my question - then I am out of this discussion,.
Guess, I just continue to accept the fact that the KJV is NOT perfect.

 

[Servant of Jehovah]

Since you do not want to answer my question - then I am out of this discussion,.
Guess, I just continue to accept the fact that the KJV is NOT perfect.

I don't see how you could come to such a conclusion. You asked if the KJV taught Baptism by immersion exclusively. I believe it does, but on basis that it transliterates (instead of translating) the Greek, which means to immerse.

 

[Logos1560]

In 1699, Edinburgh had a KJV without the Apocrypha:

Then, in 1700, London had a printing without the Apocrypha:

There was likely more than one printer in Edinburg. So was that 1699 Edinburgh edition printed by the king's or queen's printer.

There were several printers in London. Was that 1700 London KJV edition printed by the king's printer in London?

 

[Servant of Jehovah]

There was likely more than one printer in Edinburg. So was that 1699 Edinburgh edition printed by the king's or queen's printer.

There were several printers in London. Was that 1700 London KJV edition printed by the king's printer in London?