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Questions for those holding to KJVO Position

37818

Well-Known Member
No, I don't believe God "changed" His Word, at least not after the fact. Like some of the OT quotations in the NT aren't one-for-one like the Hebrew, so He "changed" or "repurposed" OT passages to fit a particular thing in the NT. That, however, is not the same as what you seem to think I've said.
I am of the persuasion the NT OT quotes are the original OT.

I don't know exactly when. I will be the first to admit I simply do not have that much experience discussing this particular variant. However, after I get a better grasp on Hebrew, I want to move on to learning Greek, which should allow me to examine manuscripts. Maybe then I'll be able to figure out the answer to your question!
What turns out is the text between NT variants are always the same as the Byzantine!

The differences are worth discussing.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
I am of the persuasion the NT OT quotes are the original OT.


?? The original OT in Greek?
Does that make the kjv the original OT and NT in English?

What exactly do you mean?
What turns out is the text between NT variants are always the same as the Byzantine!
The Byzantine is the missing link?
The Byzantine is the same as the other texts that are different in comparison to each other?
What do you mean here also?
The differences are worth discussing.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
I will ask you the same question.
If it was not added, when was it omitted?
Yep. Two questions I ask. Also which is oldest, which is the more common reading. Also whys.

The texts between variants is of course the more common text.

The text dating, goes to what is understood about manuscript writing their believed history. We pretty much have to believe the experts.

How we know comes before what we know. And why we believe comes before believing.
 
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