What does AND mean in this verse?
2 Th 2:1 (KJV1611 Edition):
Now wee beseech you, brethren,
by the comming of our Lord Iesus Christ,
and by our gathering together vnto him,
There are two main options:
1. there are two seperate sets of events
2. there are two descriptions (titles) of
the same set of events.
(There are other options, but people complain if you
get too complicated in your logic)
If you assume #2, that 'and' connects two descriptions
of the same set of events, then
you MUST believe in a post-tribulation rapture.
However, there are lots of contradictions in such a posture,
which I shall be glad to point out in the next two years,
if the Lord taries.
If you assume #3, that 'and' connects two seperate
sets of events the you MUST believe in a pretribulation
rapture. I've found no contradictions resulting from
that assumption. Therefor that assumption
(there are two seperate sets of events connected by 'and'
in 2 Thess 2:1).
BTW, a few posts ago I showed 12 differences between the
two events, nobody wants to debate the details, a sure
sign of a debate lost by the posttribs
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Npetreley: //You'll never get around the simple fact that Jesus said...//
Matthew 24:29 (Version not specified):
“Immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken.
I agree. Jesus did say that.
Npetreley: //From the context, it is crystal clear that
"the tribulation of those days" refers to the great tribulation.//
That is correct.
Npetreley: // From the context of dozens of other
references to the same signs, it is crystal clear
that the signs "the sun will be darkened, etc."
refer to the beginning of the Day of the Lord.//
That is correct.
Npetreley: //The Bible does not contradict itself:
The text above is plain and simple and needs
no interpretation to understand it.
JESUS SAYS: Immediately after the great tribulation,
the Day of the Lord will begin.//
That is correct. And I never disputed that, not in
anything that I said. However, you have made one
logical flaw. You have assumed there is
one and only one unique 'day of the Lord'.
This assumption leads to logical errors.
There is a 'day of the Lord' when Jesus comes to
defeat the Antichrist and the works of evil and
set up a physical Mellinnial Messanic Kingdom.
And Matthew 24:30 supports it.
But in the 'day of the Lord' in 2 Peter 3:10, the
universe is destroyed: the heavens and the earth.
That doesn't happen in this 'day of the Lord' that starts
'immediately after the tribulation of that day'.
Earlier I asked: What is the first verse in
Matthew 24:29-Revelation 22:21 that is NOT
covered by 'immediately after the tribulation of that day'?
A simple opinion variation results:
I believe the answer is 'Matthew 24:31'.
What do you believe?
The furtherest out answer i've gotten is 'Matthew 26:1'

Where does your answer lie?