MTA, Are you now saying that the perceptions of the world are the standards by which a person's worthiness to be a deacon are to be judged?
You have just created a much larger monster to be dealt with. What if the world knows that a man was once a drunk, drug user, gossip... what if they know of times he was caught in lies, cheating, being hateful or rebellious towards teachers/parents/adults?
What if the world perceives him as unloving and unkind because of his "legalistic" moral stands?
If the world's opinion of and critique of a Christian is the standard then no one can ever qualify.
Not only do you require that a man be sinless but also not offensive to those who would be offended by a perfectly moral person.
You can't just pick and choose which sin(s) permanently disqualifies someone. You must go by what God's Word actually says in context. The Bible says that a deacon or pastor must be a "one woman man". It doesn't specify that this precludes a divorce in the past.
It does indicate however some period of "proof".
I am just looking for one of you guys to interpret this passage in a consistent way rather than picking divorce out of all sins to be the one permanent disqualifier... and that in spite of the fact that the relevant verses don't mention divorce.
You have just created a much larger monster to be dealt with. What if the world knows that a man was once a drunk, drug user, gossip... what if they know of times he was caught in lies, cheating, being hateful or rebellious towards teachers/parents/adults?
What if the world perceives him as unloving and unkind because of his "legalistic" moral stands?
If the world's opinion of and critique of a Christian is the standard then no one can ever qualify.
Not only do you require that a man be sinless but also not offensive to those who would be offended by a perfectly moral person.
You can't just pick and choose which sin(s) permanently disqualifies someone. You must go by what God's Word actually says in context. The Bible says that a deacon or pastor must be a "one woman man". It doesn't specify that this precludes a divorce in the past.
It does indicate however some period of "proof".
I am just looking for one of you guys to interpret this passage in a consistent way rather than picking divorce out of all sins to be the one permanent disqualifier... and that in spite of the fact that the relevant verses don't mention divorce.