canadyjd
Well-Known Member
I'll look at it a little closer. Not definitive at any rate. At first reading, it probably refers to the children of Israel returning from exile.skypair said:Wow, jd! You really did analyze what I said rather than "blow me off."Isa 49:20-23
Not even close to the doctrine you say it supports.Isa 65:20
Your words, not mine. Truth is truth, even if you don't like the implicactions.It exaggerates it, right?
I am trying to see David's understanding of God's motives in accordance with his son. Not that his son was innocent (since David himself testifies of being conceived in sin) but that God is a God of great mercy and compassion (which David often testifies to).Good -- right passage! And yes, he fasted that God might save him and rejoiced afterward his son would go to heaven. But your understanding of God's motives are general and secular rather than judicial.
There are none innocent (Roms 3)God cannot/would not condemn innocence. Do you believe that?
Martin Luther said this about the salvation of infants (I believe it was he). Since salvation is a complete work of God through the power of Holy Spirit, then infants can be saved the same way everyone else is. They may not be able to respond in such a way that we understand, but in a way that God understands.I thought Jesus said "I am the Way..." So how do you include infants in this??
That being said, I know scripture testifies of God as being full of mercy and compassion. I don't have to go any further than that. Since scripture is almost completely silent on the issue, I am content to stick with scripture.
Scripture testifies that those with a sin nature are under the wrath of God. It also teaches we are conceived in sin. No vagaries of men, there. Just scripture.Is an infant under "the wrath of God" or the vagaries of men?
peace to you