2 Timothy2:1-4 said:
Where in the world did you get that?
OK, bear with me and please keep and open mind.
I will explain. This verse has been a mystery for me for many years. Any explanation I have read, did not feel right or sound correct to me until I heard this one, and while I would not be dogmatic about it, it is the explanation i am most comfortable with. It makes the most sense to me, and is what I believe the scripture is saying.
Luk 22:36 Then He said to them, "But now, he who has a money bag, let him take it, and likewise a knapsack; and he who has no sword, let him sell his garment and buy one.
I admit that on the surface, and at first glance it sounds like Jesus is telling them to arm. But if one looks at what happens just shortly after. Jesus admonishes him for using the sword.
Mat 26:51 And suddenly, one of those who were with Jesus stretched out his hand and drew his sword, struck the servant of the high priest, and cut off his ear.
Mat 26:52 But Jesus said to him, "Put your sword in its place, for all who take the sword will perish by the sword.
It makes no sense to me that Jesus is telling the disciples to arm themselves, more so when one takes into account the many other verses that Jesus taught about loving our enemies. So now if we go back to Luke 22:36, but add in the rest of what He said, and maybe you will see my point. Luke 22:36-38
Then He said to them, "But now, he who has a money bag, let him take it, and likewise a knapsack; and he who has no sword, let him sell his garment and buy one.
"For I say to you that this which is written must still be accomplished in Me: 'And He was numbered with the transgressors.' For the things concerning Me have an end."
So they said, "Lord, look, here are two swords." And He said to them, "It is enough."
First off, if He was instructing them to arm, why would he tell just two of them to do so? That makes no sense at all. Would not the other ten need to do the same?
So if that is not what He is saying, what is? I think it is clearer if looking at it in it's entirety. He tells them to sell a garment and buy a sword, why?, ""For I say to you that this which is written must still be accomplished in Me: 'And He was numbered with the transgressors."
When they then say we have two, He says "It is enough". See it wasn't about arming at all just part of the prophecy of Isaiah 53:12. Not a complete fulfillment which would come later, but a continuation. Two swords, just as there were two robbers, enough to fulfill prophesy, to be numbered with the transgressors. Would not the priest's believe that He was with transgressors when "
one of those who were with Jesus stretched out his hand and drew his sword, struck the servant of the high priest, and cut off his ear."?
Why does Jesus quote Isaiah 53:12, in Luke 22, if it had no meaning or context to what was taking place? Why does He say Buy a sword, for what is written must still be fulfilled? There would be no reason for Jesus to bring that up, if He was just instructing them to arm. It would be out of left filed, and make little sense. And why does He make a point to say two was enough? Enough for what purpose? Again it make no sense unless it was referring to the prophesy?
I realize that most of you here will not agree with this, and I respect that. But in my humble opinion, it best explains these verse, and allows it to all fit together. To this point in my life this is the explanation, that I am the most at peace with (no pun intended). :laugh: I hope that at least those that read this do so with an open mind and heart to what the scriptures might be saying.