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. . . Sola Scriptura . . . .

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loDebar

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While there is a history and a lot of debate on both sides of the argument, there is one key basis for the concept of "sola scriptura." That the written documents which make up the 66 book Bible are regarded as the word from God. Now God is inerrant. So unless one is asserting other sources which are the word of God, then Sola Scriptura stands.

Here it is, those who deny Sola Scriptura are claiming other special revelation from God regading Jesus of Nazareth being the Lord and Christ.

Fact, all professing Christians make some kind of claims regarding the 66 book Bible. Every professing Christian group makes some kind of appeal to those (66) written Scriptures for their authority. There are no exceptions.

Jhn 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Of the Godhead Jesus has taken sole action regarding the sinners, He created the place , was the communication, both OLD at New Testament and became us to die. There is be no other communication from God for Salvation.
Jhn 1:14

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

When He left, the Holy Spirit leads us to Him, Jesus, no revelation is necessary . The Holy Spirit only leads us to Christ .

God did communicate to non Hebrew people throughout History for different purposes but Salvation is through the Jews.
So if another claims the right of inspiration, they lie. If they claim God led them to understand Scripture, it is correct.
 

Marooncat79

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The Bible is very clear that you've ADDED to the gospel. The Bible says "justified by faith", NOT " justified by faith alone"



The only Bible passage that expressly addresses 'justification by faith alone':

24 Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not only by faith. Ja 2


James is talking about sanctifying faith not justification

Again, Paul states that we are justified by faith in Romans 5:1 and in chapter 4 regarding Abraham.

The alone is implied in both examples and throughout scripture
 

kyredneck

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Faith alone refers to, not by faith plus works.

Justification by faith alone is not only unscriptural, it's ANTI-scriptural:

24 Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not only by faith. Jas 2

The alone is implied in both examples and throughout scripture

So you say.​

Peruse all these 'justifications' from Romans alone:

13 for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified: Ro 2
24 being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: Ro 3
1 Being therefore justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;
9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, shall we be saved from the wrath of God through him. Ro 5
33 Who shall lay anything to the charge of God`s elect? It is God that justifieth; Ro 8

...and YOU say justification is by faith alone? Not!
 
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Marooncat79

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They would have given it you LONG ago if they could present it. They are terribly flustered by this thread even being put in a forum where Catholics are allowed to comment. And if “the Bible Alone” is indeed a true philosophy, then why do some Lutheran Churches like the ELCA say that practicing homosexual ministers are OK, and other Lutheran Churches like the Missouri Synod say that they are not? Both Churches are descendants of Martin Luther, and they both use “the Bible Alone” as their method of studying scripture. Why do many American Baptists pastors celebrate gay marriage and Freewill Baptists pastors teach Christians can lose their salvation? There are approximately 33,000 different protestant denominations today, all using “the Bible Alone” as their tradition. But they all interpret the bible differently, or they wouldn’t be a different denomination. Is the Holy Spirit divided?

There are not 33,000. That number is incorrect.

There are charismatic RCCs and non charismatic which side is correct?

Mass used to be in latin only and then the RCC changed which is correct?

Purgatory is only taught in noncanonical writings why is it accepted in the RCC?

Is tge selling of indulgences a valid practice in the RCC? Was Tetzel correct?
 

Marooncat79

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Matt 4:4 states that man shall live by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.

The church nor the RCC nor Church History nor any other thing is mentioned
 

kyredneck

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James is talking about sanctifying faith not justification

No, James is talking about justifying works. The 'works' to which James is referring:

27 Pure religion and undefiled before our God and Father is this, to visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep oneself unspotted from the world. Ja 1
15 If a brother or sister be naked and in lack of daily food,
16 and one of you say unto them, Go in peace, be ye warmed and filled; and yet ye give them not the things needful to the body; what doth it profit? Ja 2

...are the very same works by which we're all going to be judged in that day of judgement:

34 Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:
35 for I was hungry, and ye gave me to eat; I was thirsty, and ye gave me drink; I was a stranger, and ye took me in;
36 naked, and ye clothed me; I was sick, and ye visited me; I was in prison, and ye came unto me.
41 Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into the eternal fire which is prepared for the devil and his angels:
42 for I was hungry, and ye did not give me to eat; I was thirsty, and ye gave me no drink;
43 I was a stranger, and ye took me not in; naked, and ye clothed me not; sick, and in prison, and ye visited me not. Mt 25
 
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Adonia

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Matt 4:4 states that man shall live by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.

The church nor the RCC nor Church History nor any other thing is mentioned

The "Church" is most certainly mentioned. What Bible are you reading?
 

utilyan

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There are not 33,000. That number is incorrect.

There are charismatic RCCs and non charismatic which side is correct?

Mass used to be in latin only and then the RCC changed which is correct?

Purgatory is only taught in noncanonical writings why is it accepted in the RCC?

Is tge selling of indulgences a valid practice in the RCC? Was Tetzel correct?


Start a thread for each one. And we can tell you why we believe the Catholic Church.

This thread is SOLA SCRIPTURA. Notice you guys throwing flurries of attacks.

We just sent you ONE JAB..... Show us the scripture teaches your doctrine, and now you want to dodge, change subject, vilify.
We should be commended for requiring to see scripture for that teaching.

Everything else go ahead an start a thread.
 

Walter

Well-Known Member
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Start a thread for each one. And we can tell you why we believe the Catholic Church.

This thread is SOLA SCRIPTURA. Notice you guys throwing flurries of attacks.

We just sent you ONE JAB..... Show us the scripture teaches your doctrine, and now you want to dodge, change subject, vilify.
We should be commended for requiring to see scripture for that teaching.

Everything else go ahead an start a thread.

Yeah, this cat has done his best to derail this thread since he started posting. He can't give you the scripture that proves his unbiblical doctrine, which in and of itself disproves the doctrine, so he throws whatever at the wall to have us forget they have no scriptural support. Even the link he posted admitted there was not a scripture that supported. So what does he put up? A link to Sola Fide, lol
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Justification by faith alone is not only unscriptural, it's ANTI-scriptural:

24 Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not only by faith. Jas 2
So Romans 4:2-5 is unScirptural, is that what you are arguing? ". . . For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. . . ."

Now as I made mention, Abraham was also justified by his works some 50 years later, which James refers, but that reference he does not cite, Genesis 22:12.
 
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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
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Brought to you by men who removed what all of Christendom had agreed to was the Canon of Scripture for over 1500 years.
No, the 66 books in the Canon of scripture were akreagy agreed upon and in use by end of the First century, early second one, just formally ratified later on!
 

utilyan

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No, the 66 books in the Canon of scripture were akreagy agreed upon and in use by end of the First century, early second one, just formally ratified later on!

IF scripture is the ONLY authority you need SCRIPTURE to agree on all scripture. IE TABLE OF CONTENTS.

There is none. "AGREED ON" means absolutely nothing UNLESS those doing the agreeing have AUTHORITY.
 

utilyan

Well-Known Member
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WOW you guys must have a hatred of sharing the scriptures if you don't want to show us the verse that teaches the doctrine of SOLA SCRIPTURA.
 

1689Dave

Well-Known Member
“All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.” 2 Timothy 3:16–17 (KJV 1900)

“So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.” Romans 10:17 (KJV 1900)
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Jesus and the Apostles alone!
Ephesians 2:19-20, ". . . Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God; And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone; . . ."

Ephesians 4:11, ". . . And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; . . ."
 
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