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Featured The eternal purpose of Christ pt2

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by PreachTony, Aug 11, 2015.

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  1. savedbymercy

    savedbymercy New Member

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    All scripture is profitable 2 Tim 3:16 ! The Psalms are scriptures Lk 24:44-45 !
     
  2. BrotherJoseph

    BrotherJoseph Well-Known Member

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    Brother DHK,

    How can you say those Psalms are not relevant when Paul tells us, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine" (2 Timothy 3:16)? Also, please answer, do you believe those Psalms are "irrelevant" because it is untrue or "irrelevant", but true?
     
  3. PreachTony

    PreachTony Active Member

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    I'm not DHK, but if I might respond...

    It's not that they are not relevant. They simply are not relevant to most conversations. Many scriptures, especially in the OT, are relevant only to historical study of the things going on in that particular book or chapter. To try to say that a prayer written by a man 1000 years before Christ and concerning the actions of another man is of utmost relevance to modern day Christians is shortsighted. Like the quoted verse from Chronicles...it has meaning in the events of the time, but it's stretching to find overly strong meaning to even first century Christians, much less modern day Christians.
     
  4. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    I have said this several times now. Good luck getting him to agree.
     
  5. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    I never said that the Psalms were not inspired and or profitable. Where did I say such a thing?

    Again, consider:

    1 Chronicles 26:18 At Parbar westward, four at the causeway, and two at Parbar.

    How is it relevant (as Tony explained) to this discussion. It isn't.
    Neither 1Chron.26.18 relevant to this discussion. If it is would you mind explaining how?
     
  6. savedbymercy

    savedbymercy New Member

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    The Psalms teach that God hates the workers of Iniquity Ps 5:5 ! That's proof that He doesn't Love them!
     
  7. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Look, those prayers of David are the same as if the Spirit said them. The Spirit, through David, is saying God hates the workers of iniquity and that God is angry with the wicked.

    The reason why we are to love our enemies is we are not God, not holy, although we are commanded to 'be holy even as He is holy'.

    You have God hating the wicked 50% of the time one day, 100% of the time another another day, 63% of the time another day.

    Look, every sunrise is a new day TO US. To Him, there is but one eternal day, seeing He alone is Eternal.
     
  8. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Who was the first one to throw 1 Chr. 26:18 into this discussion?
     
  9. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Also, 1 Chr. 26:18 has to do with gate keeping. Stop deflecting. If you want to debate gate keeping, start a new thread about it and we will discuss it.
     
  10. PreachTony

    PreachTony Active Member

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    And at one time we were all sinners (workers of iniquity), so apparently God hates/hated all of us.
     
  11. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Alrighty then...answer this. When Christ drank that bitter cup, God poured His holy wrath upon His only Son, even unto death. Did God hate His Son?
     
  12. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    I answered your post, but I don't see response to it.
    Here is a part of it:
    God isn't angry with the wicked at all. Not according to that verse. Do some more study.

    As for Heb.12:29, I am amazed someone like yourself would even consider it.
    You (Calvinists) seem to pull a phrase here and a phrase there.
    Here a phrase, there a phrase,
    Everywhere a phrase, phrase..

    Icon starts it out with a disjointed "God is angry with the wicked every day," half of one verse without a reference.
    Now it is added to with "God is a consuming fire," a disjoint from verse 28 of Hebrews 12. Just keep stringing them together without ever looking at the context.

    Yes, I was the one who first used 1Chron.
    1 Chronicles 26:18 At Parbar westward, four at the causeway, and two at Parbar.
    --Why? Because it has about as much relevance and meaning to the verses you guys keep pulling out of context. Without context there is no real meaning.
    God is not angry with the wicked every day. That is not what the verse even means. Study it out.

    As far as Heb.12:29,
    First, it gives the impression that you view God more like the Muslims view Allah--not as a God of love, but as aloof, impersonal, of Judgment, Almighty, and ready to condemn. There is no mercy here. He is a consuming fire. You have indeed neglected the context and ignored who God really is. It is atrocious how you depict the nature of God on this thread.

    Heb 12:28 Wherefore we receiving a kingdom which cannot be moved, let us have grace, whereby we may serve God acceptably with reverence and godly fear:
    Heb 12:29 For our God is a consuming fire.
    --The author is using the first person plural "we" indicating himself. He, as a believer is speaking of the Kingdom. Let us have grace whereby we may serve God acceptably with reverence and godly fear.
    God is a loving God. We are to serve him out of grace in reverential and godly fear or respect--not half-hazardly.

    The "consuming fire" is a metaphor, just like Jesus is "the door," the "vine," etc.
    W. MacDonald says:
    It is a simple metaphor in that the author is speaking to believers that as we worship the Lord it should be with great reverential fear or respect. Respect is the proper modern word.

    But the Calvinist of today whips this KJV word out of context and makes it seem as God is an angry old man ready to condemn all in sight. Pitiful!
     
  13. BrotherJoseph

    BrotherJoseph Well-Known Member

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    BrotherPreachTony,

    The verse wasn't concerning the "actions of another man", but clearly references "all workers of iniquity". Here it is again, "thou hatest all workers of iniquity." (Psalm 5:5). Is this true or false Brother PreachTony? The other verse also is not concerning the "actions of another man", but the writer explicitly states he is referring to, " the wicked and him that loveth violence his soul hateth (Psalm 11:5). He is referring to the wicked (plural), what verses in either chapter indicate he is referring to a man singular?
     
  14. BrotherJoseph

    BrotherJoseph Well-Known Member

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    PreachTony,

    The phrase "workers of iniquity" refers only to the nonelect is evident by how the phrase appears all 21 times throughout the Bible. See https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearch/?quicksearch=workers+of+iniquity&qs_version=KJV

    Read through all those passages and find an instance in which it clearly applies all men. You will not be able to.

    Christ made it clear it applies to those who are dammed when he used the same phrase in Luke 13:27, "But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity" This phrase is never used in the KJV in reference to those who were elected unto salvation.
     
  15. BrotherJoseph

    BrotherJoseph Well-Known Member

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    At that time yes the Father did hate His Son because he was "made sin". He was "made a curse". "...being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:" (Galatians 3:13). He was "forsaken" by the Father. God does not poor out his wrath on objects he loves. This was the only way for the reconciliation to take place.
     
  16. PreachTony

    PreachTony Active Member

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    So every Bible verse then is 100% relevant to every conversation of every day? They simply are not. This does not weaken the scripture. It reveals instead that different scriptures have different applications to us.

    This is some odd logic, SG.

    Arbitrary application of numbers. As has been shown across the varying interpretations, that verse does not apply an eternal hatred of God toward the wicked. Seeing as we were all wicked at one time, if God eternally hates the wicked, then God eternally hates us all.

    No one would argue that. Trying to apply the human understanding of time to God is impossible.
     
  17. BrotherJoseph

    BrotherJoseph Well-Known Member

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    Brother DHK,

    A simple question for you, are Psalm 5:5 and 11:5 true? Yes or no. (I would agree with you that verse you cited in Chronicles is true).
     
  18. savedbymercy

    savedbymercy New Member

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    God loved some sinners Rom 5:8
     
  19. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Can you show where the scriptures indicate God "elected" a greater number or indeed any to damnation......if you cannot....then you have a problem with God.....not my theology.

    Also I asked you in post 9 I think it was....could you explain your understanding of the biblical doctrine of election?
     
  20. SovereignGrace

    SovereignGrace Well-Known Member
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    Bingo! People say God loves everybody, but then poured His wrath out on His Son. The One who after being baptized His voice rang from heaven “This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased.”[Matt. 3:17] Then His Son, who He poured His wrath upon said “Father, I thank you that you have heard me. I knew that you always hear me."[Jn. 11:41b,42a] Then right before God finished slaying His only Son Jesus stated “Father, into your hands I commit my spirit.”[Lu. 23:46b]

    God does not hate the wicked but hated His Son after He 'became' sin? Something just does not jive with their theology.
     
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