GordonSlocum
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Jarthur001 said:Fell free to start a thread and post what he said. I'm sure you will have others to post with you.![]()
He is a very gifted speaker. His sermon on Tongues and Calvinism are among the best I have ever heard.
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Jarthur001 said:Fell free to start a thread and post what he said. I'm sure you will have others to post with you.![]()
James_Newman said:Could it be used as yada, as in,
Genesis 4:1 And Adam knew(yada) Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bore Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD.
?
He is trying to show you that the word indicates a intimate personal relationship. Do you have this with God? All through the Bible God expresses Himself to His people this way.skypair said::laugh: jarthur,
So God knew us SEXUALLY?? :laugh: :laugh:
Let's get real, OK? It's Calvinists that have "assigned" your definition to the word foreknow. And what a joke! Of course God knows beforehand "about" and "of" us. Predestining us is step #2 ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURE.
skypair
Amen! Exactly Right & anybody aught to be able to see this. Right On!:thumbs:Tom Butler said:Bro. Gordon, since you are new to the board, you may not be aware that large type and sentences in all-capital letters is equated with shouting, and for some of us is a hindrance to civil discourse.
To all,
My take on "know" being analogous to Joseph "knowing" Mary is this. Paul is describing God's love for his children as being so intense and intimate that the best way to describe it is to use a word associated with the intense and intimate love a husband has for his wife in a physical way. Paul is not describing that intimate act. He's using a term human beings would understand. Nothing more, nothing less.
Right on Bro. Hard to believe the foreknowledge of God of His people has been striped down to nothing more than Him having to look and see what they are going to do before He can decide what He can do.Jarthur001 said:Well said..
I Agree 100% Some would twist this idea into the worlds view of love. But the fact remains, this is what is meant by "know" as used in the Bible. He loves the elect and has choosen the church as His bride. Not as some have joked on here and made fun, but as in that close relationship, just as you are close to your wife.
The idea is that he had a personal knowledge of it. Certainly no one here is saying he loved their sin, but he did have a personal knowledge of their hearts.Blammo said:Let's stick with this verse.
No, I do not agree that Jesus "intimately loved" their wickedness.
I do agree that he was aware of it.
Then why all the attempts to change the definition now?Right on Bro. Hard to believe the foreknowledge of God of His people has been striped down to nothing more than Him having to look and see what they are going to do before He can decide what He can do.
What is your point Bob? Are you aware of the fact that in Rom 8:29 "pro" is added to this word and translated foreknow?Brother Bob said:Ginosko=sexual intercourse
- Jewish idiom for sexual intercourse between a man and a woman
I was only agreeing to the fact that the word brings in a personal relationship idea. I mean, pushing aside our differences for a moment, can you not say that in your study of the Bible that you have found in the Scripture where God talks of His relationship with His people in ways that relate to husband and wife like language? I mean, we do not push the idea into the gutter, but it is hard to miss the illustrations all through Scripture.Brother Bob said:Yes I am but in no way did it use "knew" as used in Matt when Mary was inpregnated as foreknow. Why don't you people just say God has a special love for His people why bring Mary being inpregnated into it?
Yes. I see your point well. All I am saying is that the word "knew" does as you say in context indicate sexual contact, but it also denotes personal union as well which is spiritual for believers, physical in the case of Joseph & Mary, but spiritual for us & intimate.Brother Bob said:I sure agree that God said "husbands love your wives as Christ loves the Church". That in no way means anything physical. All the Love God talks about of His children never means anything physical as Mary becoming impregnated. You will agree will you not?
I may get back on board on this. But for now. I have to go. I need prayer. I have been placed on a job that has drained me very much. See ya.Brother Bob said:I agree jne;
But the passage of Joseph "knew" Mary and she bore a son was what was used. His point was well taken but He used a scripture with the wrong context to make his point is all I and others have said.
Thanks! God Bless.Brother Bob said:I praying, peace
jne1611 said:I was only agreeing to the fact that the word brings in a personal relationship idea. I mean, pushing aside our differences for a moment, can you not say that in your study of the Bible that you have found in the Scripture where God talks of His relationship with His people in ways that relate to husband and wife like language? I mean, we do not push the idea into the gutter, but it is hard to miss the illustrations all through Scripture.
This gives the right meaning, in that it means to know in a personal way. This is why we see in In Rom 8:29,30, the foreknown are predestined to the image of Christ, and are called, justified and glorified. It means knowing as in relationship. This goes hand in hand with predestined. In 1Pe 1:2, the word for "foreknowledge" is the same as "foreordain" in the twentieth verse of the same chapter, where the meaning cannot be "foreknowledge" about Christ. God's foreknowledge about persons is without limitations; whereas, His foreknowledge (to know as used with Mary) of a person is limited to those who are actually saved and glorified.