However, Ephesians 2:8-10 also proves that regeneration and faith are inseparable from each other and that faith is not "of works" but is contained in the new birth by God.
8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Paul uses a paraphrastic construction joining a perfect tense verb with a present tense to be or linking verb that translates "are ye saved." The implication is that this "saved" event took place in the past as a completed action at a past point in time and stands complete right up to the present. That is the implication of the perfect tense alone. The joining with it the to be verb emphaiszes the continuance of that perfect state.
Now, those who would debate the point of completed action, I simply reply that the contextual definition of "saved" is quickening (vv. 1, 5) as the term "saved" is first linked with "quickened" in verse 5 as explanatory of "saved." Hence, "saved" in verse 8 refers back to quickening in verse 5. Either a person is spiritual dead or alive. There is no progressive quickening! If you are dead, you are dead. If you are alive you are alive. Hence, quickening is a COMPLETED POINT OF ACTION where the dead become alive at a given point in time. This is the reason for the perfect tense.
However, this perfect state completed action in past time was an action that was completed "THROUGH FAITH" at the point of its completion. In other words "faith" is inseparable from the completed action of being "saved." No human being is "saved" as a COMPLETED ACTION apart from "faith" but this kind of "saved" (quickening/regeneation) is completed "THROUGH FAITH." It is not something that produces faith but something that is completed as an point of action "THROUGH" faith.
Hence, this is a grammatical demand that "saved" and "faith" are inseparable at the POINT OF COMPLETED ACTION.
Furthermore, "saved" in this context refers to being QUICKENED (vv. 1,5, 10).which by its very nature is not a progressive action as one is either alive or dead. Quickening is exclusively an act of God as no man can raise the dead to life.
Now, look at the logical flow of thought from verse 8 to verse 10.
1. Here is what happened - "SAVED BY GRACE THROUGH FAITH"
2. The Denial of what it is to be attributed to:
a. Cannot be attributed to self - "and that not of yourself"
b. Cannot be attributed to works - "not of works lest any man should boast"
3. Assertion to whom it can be attributed to:
a. "It is a gift of God"
b. "For we are His workmanship created in Christ Jesus"
4. Proof that "through faith" and "unto good works" are not synonomous
a. The action of saved/quickened cannot occur except "through faith"
b. Creation in Christ occurs prior to and thus without "good works"
Conclusion: There is no such thing as a unregenerated believer because faith cannot occur apart from and outside of regeneration. There is no such thing as a regenerated unbeliever because regeneration cannot occur apart from faith.
This is the same grammatical conclusion in 1 John 5:1 with the perfect tense verb "born" of God and the present tense participle "believeth."
Why can't you deal with the scriptures I repeatedly place in your face that prove what you say here is false?????? What scriptures you ask? John 6:64-65 that explicitly and clearly teach that faith is not of man but must be "given to him of the Father."
John 6:65 is provided as an EXPLANATION to why some of his PROFESSED disciples and Judas did not truly believe in him. John 6:64 says Jesus knew "FROM THE BEGINNING" who were not true believers among those professing to be his disciples. He knew "FROM THE BEGINNING" who they were and that is why Jesus said "NO MAN CAN come to me" meaning no man can come in saving faith to me - "EXCEPT IT WERE GIVEN HIM of my Father."
John 6:29 is not a play on words but a declaration by Christ to the very same effect as John 6:44 and John 6:65 - "THIS IS THE WORK OF GOD that ye believe on him." Faith is NOT A WORK OF MAN but a "WORK OF GOD" because it must be "GIVEN UNTO HIM OF MY FATHER."
Romans 4:3-6 completely repudiates your false doctrine and false gospel. In Romans 4:1-3 Paul clearly and explicitly states that Abraham was justified "before God" (v. 1) not by works whereof he could glory but by faith - that very contrasts destroys your argument that justifiying faith is of works:
1 ¶ What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
Anyone capable of third grade English can see that verse 3 is an outright denial that Abraham was justified by works (v. 2) but was justified by faith - meaning faith is not of works or else Paul's CONTRASTING conclusion to works (v. 2) in verse 3 makes no sense at all.
If your false doctrine were correct verses 2-3 should read as follows:
"SINCE Abraham was justified by works, seeing that faith is a work, but Abraham does not have whereof to glory since faith is a work of the new man"
If that is not suffienct to show your are teaching an absolute false gospel, false definition of faith, false grace then verses 3-6 surely exposes your spiritual darkness to the light of truth:
3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
In verse 4 Paul denies that works can be "reckoned" or "counted" as grace but must be "reckoned" or "counted" as works. Do you understand that? If faith is of works as you say, then it cannot be "counted" or "reckoned" to be of grace but must be counted or reckoned of "debt." All works are attempts to PAY a debt or EARN favor. However, anything "of grace" cannot be EARNED and thus cannot be "OF DEBT."
Now, Paul is explicitly denying that justification by faith is "of debt" and therefore is not OF WORKS just as he declared in verse 2 "If Abraham were justified BY WORKS he hath whereof to glory but NOT BEFORE GOD." Abraham was not justified by works but by faith and therefore faith is not of works as verses 5-6 proves by contrasting works to faith:
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works
Look at the last two words of verse 6 - "WITHOUT WORKS" and the first phrase of verse 5 "WORKETH NOT"! Paul makes these the contrast of imputed righteousness or justification BY FAITH proving justifying faith is not of works as he said in verses 2-3 and verse 4 and now in verses 5-6.
Last, he says the same thing in verse 16 "It is OF FAITH that it might be BY GRACE." However, your view would force this text to say "It is OF FAITH which is BY WORKS."
John 6:29, 44-45; 64-65 and Romans 4:1-6, 16 are a thorough repudiation of your false doctrine! I dare you to give any kind of rational exegetical based response to my exposition of these texts. I predicte you won't even attempt to do so because YOU CANNOT do so!