Brother Shane said:
Do you not believe that Psalm 51 if the prayer of repentance from David?
No, I believe that Psalm 51 is David's confession, as I said.
You (and cetrainly many others) are the ones who read "repentance" (really meaning "repent of/from one(s) sin(s)") into the text.
Nowhere does the Bible ever even use this phrase, as so many have 'eisegeted' it to read, although it uses the words "repent" ('relent' in the NKJV some 30 times for the same Hebrew and Greek word, where God is concerned) and "repentance", (or some variation therof, in a couple of other translations) ~100 times in all the "standard" versions I am, more or less, quickly aware of (but not including 'paraphrases'), such as the AMP, ASV, DARBY, ESV, HSCB, KJV, NIV, and NKJV, to give them alphabetically.
1 Have mercy on me, O God,
because of your unfailing love.
Because of your great compassion,
blot out the stain of my sins.
2 Wash me clean from my guilt.
Purify me from my sin.
3 For I recognize my rebellion;
it haunts me day and night.
4 Against you, and you alone, have I sinned;
I have done what is evil in your sight.
You will be proved right in what you say,
and your judgment against me is just.[
a]
5 For I was born a sinner—
yes, from the moment my mother conceived me.
6 But you desire honesty from the womb,[
b]
teaching me wisdom even there. 7 Purify me from my sins,[
c] and I will be clean;
wash me, and I will be whiter than snow.
8 Oh, give me back my joy again;
you have broken me—
now let me rejoice. (Ps. 51:1-8 - NKJV)
If David was "repenting of his sins", why does Scripture not say this? Also why would he have to ask the Lord to 'blot out' the stain of that sin??
Again, I say that the (implied) claim that David "repented of his sin" is adding, or at least attempting to add something to Scripture that Scripture does not say.
Incidentally, I will ask yet once again (for now at least the 5th time on the BB, without ever getting a real answer), if "repent"
really does mean "repent of sins", just exactly what sins is it you are ascribing to God, considering that He is the one who is said to either 'repent' or 'not repent' some 30 times in Scripture?
FTR, again, the only individual I have ever found in Scripture said to "repent", as an individual, aside from God, is Job. (Job 42:6) The nation of Israel and the city of Ninevah are mentioned regarding this in a collective sense, yes, but not another individual, that I have found.
And I'm just naive enough to believe that the Holy Spirit could have found some way to have this said somewhere, in 1189 chapters and over 31,000 verses, if that was His intention. He didn't have it said, so I'm not willing to say it either.
FTR, one was told to repent in order that the sins might be blotted out(Ac. 3:19), and for (because of) the remission of sins. (Mk. 1:4; Lk. 3:3; Ac. 2:38) And repentance (a change of mind, i.e. the 'flip-side' of believe/faith) is to be directed toward God, and not sin. (Ac. 20:20-21)
I hope I have answered your question, in a fairly brief manner, from Scripture.
Ed