Blammo said:
I agree 100%
Is any one "of God" before they believe that Jesus is the Christ? Were you "of God" before you believed.
Please understand, I realize why these proud Israelites could not believe. It was prophesied. (Isaiah, right?) My questions are: Was this a temporary blindness until after the cross? Or, is this proof that all who don't believe are being blinded by God to keep them from getting saved?
John 8:28 Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
I'm going to show three verses that seem to suggest the blindness was not caused by God, though He did allow it.
Ezekiel 12:2 Son of man, thou dwellest in the midst of a rebellious house, which have eyes to see, and see not; they have ears to hear, and hear not: for they are a rebellious house.
2 Corinthians 4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.
John 8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
Can you share a verse that shows God as the cause of the blindness?
Hello Blammo, your questions here have been excellenty dealt with already, but here's my version:
Is any one "of God" before they believe that Jesus is the Christ? Were you "of God" before you believed.
People can be "of God" as in "the elect of God", and they can be "of God" as in "Born of God". The word "of" generally indicates origin. So, if someone is elect of God, then their election orginates in God. If they are born of God, then their birth originates in God. Check out Rom 11:36 "For of him (origin), and through him (deliverer), and to him (receiver), are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen."
I think John, as agrees the commentators, clearly speaks of those that are "of God" as those that are BORN of God. He establishes it in the first chapter v13.
So then we look at the new birth to understand what it is to be "born of God". In the third chapter, John give a clear, undisputable account of the new birth. Unfortunately, most people read John Ch 3 this way:
Ye must be born again.....whosoever believeth in him shall have everlasting life.
From this understanding, they naturally assume that the way to be born again is to believe. But the part that they leave out in the elipse is really the most important part, and it's the left-out part that contains the answer to Nicodemus' question "how can a man be born when he is old?". Now lets put John 3 in context:
Ye must be born again, or esle you can't see...how to be born again?...the wind (pnuema, spirit) bloweth where it listeth (wishes, desires)...so is every man that is born of the spirit...and whosoever believeth should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Now obviously that's not a complete exigesis but it'll do for the purpose here.
So we see that birth must preceed belief. Now you can find passages which seem, on the surface, to say th opposite, that you must believe to be born again. Acts 16 is one of the most popular "and they said to him believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you shall be saved". So then how do we understand the Phillipian jailer in light of John 3? Well, we have to understand the individual elements of salvation, that includes election, regeneration, justification, sanctification, glorification, conversion, repentance, faith, redemption, reconciliation, forgiveness, atonement, and many other facets that I can't immediately recall. But regardless of the entanglements of all those doctrines, always keep it simple and remember - BIRTH is FIRST in TIME (but not sequence, election, foreknowledge, and predestination obviously preceeds birth in time, having taken place in eternity).
So, who can believe? Those that are born of God, who are born by the Spirit. To say otherwise is to say that they believe because they believe, or, they don't believe because they don't believe, which fails to recognize the
origin of belief.
Were you "of God" before you believed
.
Based on what I said above, I was "of God" before I believed, being "elect of God" from eternity, and "born of God" by His Spirit in time, inabling me to believe.
Was this a temporary blindness until after the cross?
I'm assuming that your basing your question of your understanding of the Lord's promise that all men would be drawn to him if he be lifted up. Well, it is clearly evident that the blindness of Israel was not removed after the cross, for Israel rejected the Apostles as they did the Lord, which the Lord himself said they would do. In fact, Israel completely (in a general sense) apostasized, and felt God's wrath in 70 a.d. Every single person is born blind and remains so unless God opens their eyes. The "all men" that were and are drawn to Christ after the cross refers to men of all nations and kinds. Check the context of the passage. What had happened? Lazarus had been resurrected, and some Gentiles,
Greeks, had heard of the deed, for the news of it was spreading abroad. "They would see Jesus", and Jesus upon hearing this declared that all men would be drawn unto him if he be lifted up. And the prophecy was fulfilled, for the Gospel did spread throughout the "whole world" (so says scripture, but understand the context of that also - the scope does not include every single place in the world) after the resurrection of Christ.
Can you share a verse that shows God as the cause of the blindness?
Yes, I can show you verses that show that God causes blindness. Here's one: John 12:40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them. And some others have been supplied in other posts.
But God does not HAVE to blind people in order for them to be reprobated to hell. People are born blind, cursed by their father Adam's sin. God has to do nothing but pass them over, leave them in their fallen state, He doesn't have to
actively ensure their doom. Those references where we find God
actively blinding people are speaking to specific purposes according to God's will, usually to aggrevate their rebellion, and to show His power over the flesh, as in the hardening of Pharoe for the purpose of spreading the fame of God's power throughout the world.
I think this is the longest post I've ever done and I hope it's been helpful. I will now return to my usual tactic of throwing "zingers" into the conversation here and there.