I don't see how people can merely use the pronouns in some verses to prove anything. Remember, each epistle (most of which by Paul) had a writer and a readership. It's natural that when you write to someone you would use pronouns such as I, me, we, us, you, ye, your, etc. A pronoun may or may not be specifically qualified except by surrounding context. Just because someone says "we" doesn't mean he implies "we" only. I would presuppose that whenever Paul says "we" he could mean I and the apostles with me at this time or I and you guys. However, even if Paul, when referring to salvation says "we are saved" (meaning I and you guys are saved) that doesn't mean he is being exclusive.
When Paul says (Gal 2:20) "I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me" does he mean that only he was crucified with Christ and that Christ only died for him exclusively? No! That is why I get frustrated at theological systems that try to inject so much reading into simple words and phrases where there was no such implication intended.
Dan, you have plenty of other verses that are good support for your point; the pronouns in general just don't do it.
See my pronoun topic for a look at some of these pronouns.
When Paul says (Gal 2:20) "I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me" does he mean that only he was crucified with Christ and that Christ only died for him exclusively? No! That is why I get frustrated at theological systems that try to inject so much reading into simple words and phrases where there was no such implication intended.
Dan, you have plenty of other verses that are good support for your point; the pronouns in general just don't do it.
See my pronoun topic for a look at some of these pronouns.