Tsalagi
Member
I commend 1 Corinthians 10:1-13 to your attention as it illuminates Exodus 32:33 - Paul indicates that the judgment of physical death is the issue there rather than salvation.
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What Do These Passages Teach?
- Thread starter SavedByGrace
- Start date
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
All three verses that you quote relate only to the Incarnate Christ, and have no bearing as to His Deity. He IS always YHWH, when you can grasp what this actually means, then you will have a better understanding of the Person of Jesus Christ.
We have fear and trembling because we are men of unclean lips. It is only in Christ, who is our mediator, that we can possibly stand.
37818
Well-Known Member
What does Revelation 20:15 warn?
At this point the OP has left the topic whereby his first two verses have been answered in such a way that he can see his error. The OP has moved to a misunderstanding of Romans 7 and then Philippians 2. His misgivings have been answered.
The question left is whether he will abandon his works based soteriology or whether he will continue to cling to that which is shown to be false.
The question left is whether he will abandon his works based soteriology or whether he will continue to cling to that which is shown to be false.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
Jesus will still be fully God then!
That the lost will suffer in lake of fire forever
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
NO!
37818
Well-Known Member
We disagree, in that God does not change, God the Father, Son of God and Holy Spirit were always God the Father, Son of God and Holy Spirit being the One God and did not change. So the Son was always the Son. Mark 13:32.
Tsalagi
Member
Different book, as is the one in Revelation 3:5 and Revelation 13:8. There are multiple books (Daniel 7:10, Revelation 20:13).
37818
Well-Known Member
Prove this from 1 Corinthians 15:26-28. Verse 26 is Revelation 20:14. Verse 28 is after that.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
your Christology is clearly Subordinationism and therefore heretical.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
this thread will close soon, start a new one. your 2 passages do NOT support your "theory"!
Tsalagi
Member
John chapter 1 says the Word was God. It also says the Word "became" flesh. How is that not a change? Death, resurrection - that's not change?
God did not give the eternal Word for our salvation, He gave His uniquely begotten Son (John 1:14, John 3:16). If the second person of the Trinity was the Son in eternity past, who was the mother?
37818
Well-Known Member
And why are they per Revelation 20:15 lost?
37818
Well-Known Member
It was a change as to how the Word was with the God, John 1:2-3. Not that the Word was God, John 1:1 and John 1:10.
A change how He was with the God, John 1:2-3, not that He was God, John 1:9-10, Hebrews 1:3.
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SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
For rejecting Jesus Christ as their personal Saviour and Lord
Tsalagi
Member
Rather, it was a change in how the Word is with us (Matthew 1:23, John 1:14). Of course the Word was God, nobody here believes otherwise. But you said He was always "the Son" in eternity past and did not change, offering no biblical support for those claims.
You also do not address the three "was" verbs in John 1:1 - why are these imperfects and not presents? Because something about the status "in the beginning" changed at the incarnation. It's pretty much the point of that chapter.
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37818
Well-Known Member
Yes, there is disagreements over the books. Revelation 20:15 is the book that matters.