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What is meant by Cals when they ask: do you believe "by our own ability?"

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glfredrick

New Member
Of course, because I believe Jesus when he said, " He said to them, "When you pray, say: " 'Father, hallowed be your name, your kingdom come. 3 Give us each day our daily bread. 4 Forgive us our sins, for we also forgive everyone who sins against us. And lead us not into temptation. ' " 5 Then he said to them, "Suppose one of you has a friend, and he goes to him at midnight and says, 'Friend, lend me three loaves of bread, 6 because a friend of mine on a journey has come to me, and I have nothing to set before him.' 7 "Then the one inside answers, 'Don't bother me. The door is already locked, and my children are with me in bed. I can't get up and give you anything.' 8 I tell you, though he will not get up and give him the bread because he is his friend, yet because of the man's boldness he will get up and give him as much as he needs. 9 "So I say to you: Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and the door will be opened to you. 10 For everyone who asks receives; he who seeks finds; and to him who knocks, the door will be opened. 11 "Which of you fathers, if your son asks for a fish, will give him a snake instead? 12 Or if he asks for an egg, will give him a scorpion? 13 If you then, though you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give the Holy Spirit to those who ask him!"

But, you are sure that you do not believe that God can change anyone's heart... Sounds like there is a discrepancy between your point in a debate and your actual practice.

I think, that at the end of the day, we all believe (or at least all who are "in Christ") that God can and indeed will come and change the heart of a person, even if that person doesn't really want their heart changed. We pray that way all the time -- all of us -- and we expect God to move and act in the way that only God can!

For the sake of argument over our preferred brand of theology, we might argue that God cannot do something like change the heart of a person who is set against Him, but we still ask, don't we?

Personally, I am eternally grateful that God changed my heart, even when I was an enemy and not desiring any relationship with Him. While I was yet a sinner (and how!) God sent His Son to die for me.
 

glfredrick

New Member
Jesus said: "I am come to seek and to save the lost."
He also said: "Pray in this manner...thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven."

More importantly, He taught:
7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.

8 And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment:
9 Of sin, because they believe not on me;
10 Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more;
11 Of judgment, because the prince of this world is judged. (John 16:7-11)

Not one thing that you posted has anything to do with answering the very simple question I posed to Skandelon.

How about, yes or no? That will suffice.
 

glfredrick

New Member
No one here to my recollection is attempting to say otherwise.


So, when did her regeneration take place? Prior to her becoming a "worshiper of God" or when "the Lord opened her heart to respond?"

Is it possible for someone to be a worshiper of God in a "religious sense" before they actually become a Christian?
 

preacher4truth

Active Member
But, you are sure that you do not believe that God can change anyone's heart... Sounds like there is a discrepancy between your point in a debate and your actual practice.

I think, that at the end of the day, we all believe (or at least all who are "in Christ") that God can and indeed will come and change the heart of a person, even if that person doesn't really want their heart changed. We pray that way all the time -- all of us -- and we expect God to move and act in the way that only God can!

For the sake of argument over our preferred brand of theology, we might argue that God cannot do something like change the heart of a person who is set against Him, but we still ask, don't we?

Personally, I am eternally grateful that God changed my heart, even when I was an enemy and not desiring any relationship with Him. While I was yet a sinner (and how!) God sent His Son to die for me.

This is how God has always worked, changing hearts, and wills, and thankfully so. We always pray this for persons on our "unsaved" list, and He changes their hearts and wills, breaks them from their enslaved and depraved nature.
 

preacher4truth

Active Member
Answer my question. Do you believe Lydia was regenerated prior to her becoming a "worshiper of God" or are you arguing that the reference to God's opening her heart is the work of regeneration?

No thanks. I concisely exposed and dismantled your erroneous statement and will pass on the strawman side issue you're attempting to create.
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
No thanks. I concisely exposed and dismantled your erroneous statement and will pass on the strawman side issue you're attempting to create.
I'm reminded why I stopped responding to your posts.

We all agree that God works in changing hearts and wills, we just disagree as to the effectuality of the means He employes in order to accomplish that end. Since you don't seem able or willing to address that actual point of our contention it is my pleasure to move on and respond to those who do. Thank you for your time.
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
But, you are sure that you do not believe that God can change anyone's heart... Sounds like there is a discrepancy between your point in a debate and your actual practice.
Then you don't understand my belief. As stated, we both affirm that God works to change the wills/minds/hearts of man, but we disagree as to the effectuality of his means. My argument was that God uses "normative" means such as circumstances, envy, persuasion, scripture, pain, nature etc etc (all biblical examples) to reveal himself and his will to man. These can all be "traded in for lie" (Rom 1) as man is able to rebel and resist the Holy Spirit (Acts 7:51) and divine revelation.

In the verse I quoted, we have Jesus teaching men to pray that God will is done on earth as it is in heaven. Why? Is there any difference in the Calvinistic way of viewing the world?

Also, it has Jesus teaching men that when we are persistent in our prayer that God will respond to his children granting them the Holy Spirit. Just how does that fit the model you are attempting to promote?

And for what purpose might you pray for a lost soul? If they are elect God will save them anyway and if they aren't you're wasting your breathe because apparently you have more mercy on that person than God did.

When a heart is changed all glory goes to God for changing it, but when its not all blame goes to man for resisting that which God earnestly appealed to be changed.
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Is it possible for someone to be a worshiper of God in a "religious sense" before they actually become a Christian?

But that is not the type of person described when speaking of Lydia, or especially Cornelius. He is described as a righteous person and an honorable man, nothing like the way Jesus spoke of the Religious elite of that day...or the way Calvinists describe those prior to being regenerated..
 

quantumfaith

Active Member
I'm reminded why I stopped responding to your posts.

We all agree that God works in changing hearts and wills, we just disagree as to the effectuality of the means He employes in order to accomplish that end. Since you don't seem able or willing to address that actual point of our contention it is my pleasure to move on and respond to those who do. Thank you for your time.

Yep, yesiree, you sure do appear "dismantled" to me. ;)
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Thanks. That means that you do believe that God can work to effect change in a person's heart, even if they are resistant.
I have always believed that. But I specifically say that it is the work of the Holy Spirit to bring people under conviction of sin. That is also how I explain "the drawing to the Father." The passage in John 16 is very clear about the work of the Holy Spirit and how important it is. It also suggests that the unbeliever will resist His work: "of sin because they will not believe on me."

And as he reasoned of righteousness, temperance, and judgment to come, Felix trembled, and answered, Go thy way for this time; when I have a convenient season, I will call for thee. (Acts 24:25)

I would think that there was conviction of sin here.
 

preacher4truth

Active Member
I'm reminded why I stopped responding to your posts.

We all agree that God works in changing hearts and wills, we just disagree as to the effectuality of the means He employes in order to accomplish that end. Since you don't seem able or willing to address that actual point of our contention it is my pleasure to move on and respond to those who do. Thank you for your time.

Likewise, as it is your "normative" to change the subject and bring in an army of strawmen.

You're the one who stated God doesn't work in this manner, and at least two of us quoted you on this. Then showed that you're incorrect.

I answered you perfectly well on your fallacious statement, then you wanted and added another rabbit trail escape.

So actually, I did indeed answer the actual point of our contention. God does change wills with supernatural power to direct them to His purposes.
 

glfredrick

New Member
Then you don't understand my belief.

That's the understatement of the year... :laugh:

As stated, we both affirm that God works to change the wills/minds/hearts of man, but we disagree as to the effectuality of his means. My argument was that God uses "normative" means such as circumstances, envy, persuasion, scripture, pain, nature etc etc (all biblical examples) to reveal himself and his will to man. These can all be "traded in for lie" (Rom 1) as man is able to rebel and resist the Holy Spirit (Acts 7:51) and divine revelation.

Of course He uses "normative" means. He uses whichever means He desires! If, on the other hand, you mean to say that He can ONLY use some circumstance that can be described in very human terms of cause and effect, then you have neutered the Almighty God of the universe and rendered Him something other than His self-described "all powerful" and "all knowing" state. In what you describe above, it is STILL God doing the action to bring a rebellious individual, who may want nothing at all of God, to repentance!

In the verse I quoted, we have Jesus teaching men to pray that God will is done on earth as it is in heaven. Why? Is there any difference in the Calvinistic way of viewing the world?

I'm not sure that this is pertinent to the thread. As I see it, however, you are thinking that there is some hindrance to God's sovereignty on earth unless WE first enable it. That doesn't make... Either God is sovereign, and as we pray, directed by His Holy Spirit, in accord with His will, or God is not sovereign until we allow Him to act. The God I see in Scripture is sovereign -- period. Our prayers are merely a means to be part of His work on this earth.

You do pray in accordance with the Holy Spirit, do you not? Or are your prayers the actions of your own heart? Just wondering, for why else would Jesus teach us to pray in accordance with God's divine will, expressed in heaven and on earth if that were something not possible to achieve?

Also, it has Jesus teaching men that when we are persistent in our prayer that God will respond to his children granting them the Holy Spirit. Just how does that fit the model you are attempting to promote?

It fits perfectly. See above... But, I do see a hitch in your harness... Does the Holy Spirit indwell true regenerated believers or does He come and go depending on what we do? Have you removed the sovereignty of God to the point where even the Holy Spirit's coming is subject to your own whim?

And for what purpose might you pray for a lost soul? If they are elect God will save them anyway and if they aren't you're wasting your breathe because apparently you have more mercy on that person than God did.

Now, Skandelon, you know better than this. I even gigged you on this same point in another thread the other day. Elect does not equal "saved." Elect equals "elect." "Saved" is a broad category that describes a number of related events, election being but one of them. Why do you insist on trotting out this defeated argument time after time?

To the greater question above, we pray for lost souls because in God's economy, that is what HE commanded us to do. We are to pray for the elect, and pray that they might be made part of His kingdom. That is precisely because "elect" does not equal "saved" as expressed above.

I know that you despise Calvinists, but would your attitude make us out to be a people who ignore God's Word, God's commands, or even God Himself? Sure seems like it at times!

When a heart is changed all glory goes to God for changing it, but when its not all blame goes to man for resisting that which God earnestly appealed to be changed.

That is your take on the subject... I would see it differently.

We CERTAINLY would not give man any glory for choosing God. I can't find a single place in the Scriptures that indicate that man should have that sort of glory, reserved only for God.

About the heart change issue, God may be saying, "Not now," or "Not ever." We cannot apply "blame" for what we do not know. Some come the moment the gospel is preached. Others take years. Some, not at all, and they die in their sin. We cannot know because we can only know what God has told US to do in faith. We don't know who are the elect, or even the number of the elect. We present the gospel to all people and make the elect disciples when they hear and respond to the effectual call of God, are regenerated, are justified, adopted, and are given the gift of faith/repentance in order to begin their sanctification. We then edify the believer through the command to disciple them so as to walk with them in perseverance until that day when we are glorified and enter God's presence.
 

glfredrick

New Member
But that is not the type of person described when speaking of Lydia, or especially Cornelius. He is described as a righteous person and an honorable man, nothing like the way Jesus spoke of the Religious elite of that day...or the way Calvinists describe those prior to being regenerated..

I don't see that in the text. I see a lot of assumptions on your part.

And, how, exactly, do Calvinists describe persons prior to being regenerated. Perhaps you are in error about that. You have certainly been in error about other Calvinist doctrine.
 

glfredrick

New Member
I have always believed that. But I specifically say that it is the work of the Holy Spirit to bring people under conviction of sin. That is also how I explain "the drawing to the Father." The passage in John 16 is very clear about the work of the Holy Spirit and how important it is. It also suggests that the unbeliever will resist His work: "of sin because they will not believe on me."

And as he reasoned of righteousness, temperance, and judgment to come, Felix trembled, and answered, Go thy way for this time; when I have a convenient season, I will call for thee. (Acts 24:25)

I would think that there was conviction of sin here.

Of course... How is that inconsistent with my view? EVERYONE resists God before God draws them via the Holy Spirit. Have you now become a Calvinist? :laugh:
 

preacher4truth

Active Member
As stated, we both affirm that God works to change the wills/minds/hearts of man, but we disagree as to the effectuality of his means. My argument was that God uses "normative" means such as circumstances, envy, persuasion, scripture, pain, nature etc etc (all biblical examples) to reveal himself and his will to man. These can all be "traded in for lie" (Rom 1) as man is able to rebel and resist the Holy Spirit (Acts 7:51) and divine revelation.

What is stated above is an expressed deficiency in understanding theological truths, and basically an attempt to protect the false notion of freewill.

Yes, God has used these other means, but He also reserves the right, and exercises the right to change hearts, harden hearts, cause us to desire, change and direct wills, all for the objective to accomplish His will and purposes for His ultimate Glory.

God most certainly can and does changes the will of man to accomplish His purposes. He has done this throughout history. He still does so today in thelives of believers.
 
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glfredrick

New Member
I really should apologize to DHK. Even suggesting to an old fundamentalist such as he that a point of his doctrine might match up with Calvinism is akin to calling him a Catholic. My bad... :laugh:
 
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