Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
Could you produce one place in this thread where I quoted sister White? Could you also produce one place where I 'adlibbed' to scripture for the point of the OP?
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What is the Lord's day according to scripture alone?
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Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
Paul didn't say any such thing, and I noticed you did not produce a single verse of scripture, but simply produced 'you' in evidence. You are not my final authority in all matters of faith and practice, but yet, inspired and preserved scripture, the KJB, is.
5 Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the LORD:
6 And he shall turn the heart of the fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers, lest I come and smite the earth with a curse. Mal 4
15 For these are not drunken, as ye suppose; seeing it is but the third hour of the day.
16 but this is that which hath been spoken through the prophet Joel:
17 And it shall be in the last days, saith God, I will pour forth of my Spirit upon all flesh: And your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, And your young men shall see visions, And your old men shall dream dreams:
18 Yea and on my servants and on my handmaidens in those days Will I pour forth of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy.
19 And I will show wonders in the heaven above, And signs on the earth beneath; Blood, and fire, and vapor of smoke:
20 The sun shall be turned into darkness, And the moon into blood, Before the day of the Lord come, That great and notable day.
21 And it shall be, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved. Acts 2
24 For as the lightning, that lighteneth out of the one part under heaven, shineth unto the other part under heaven; so shall also the Son of man be in his day.
26 And as it was in the days of Noe, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man. Lu 17
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet, Rev 1
The KJV is not directly inspired and preserved scripture. The KJV is a translation of the Scriptures in the same sense that the pre-1611 English Bible translations are and in the same sense that post-1611 English Bible translations such as the NKJV are. The 1611 edition of the KJV had some proven errors, which demonstrates that it was not given by inspiration of God.
What are the Scriptures given by inspiration of God according to the Scriptures alone--let the Bible speak?
Can you provide a single verse of Scripture that says that you should make the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of biased, imperfect Church of England critics in 1611 your final authority? Can you provide a verse that says that the word of God is bound to the 1611 KJV?
Your posts reveal that you do not practice what you preach since you do not prove some of your opinions to be according to Scripture alone. Will you answer the following question about your own claim concerning the KJV based on a consistent application of your question?
What are the Scriptures given by inspiration of God according to the Scriptures alone--let the Bible speak?
The 1537 Matthew's Bible, one of the pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV is a revision, stated the following at Revelation 1:10.
"I was in the spirit on a Sunday & heard behind me a great voice."
Would you claim that the KJV was a revision of earlier English Bibles that were not the word of God?
"I was in the spirit on a Sunday & heard behind me a great voice."
Would you claim that the KJV was a revision of earlier English Bibles that were not the word of God?
I'm saying your THEOLOGY is shaped by that charlatan EGW. And your attempt to emphasize some Scriptures while ignoring others is a form of adlibbing, making up new meanings for them with no basis in fact.
Paul, who had a hotline to Jesus & the Holy Spirit, plainly wrote that observing the sabbath & other "fest days" was a matter of conscience. But we must be sure what shaped that conscience. In the SDA's case, it was the writings of a charlatan, EGW.
What's a "KJB"? A new Russian secret police ?
Oh, I forgot - It's the KJV according to Ellen G. White's private interps.
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
Sunday is Roman time, from midnight to midnight, not at all a word that is a proper translation of the koine Greek, nor even a word found in all of God's word.
1537 Matthew's is pretty much irrelevant to our discussion, and in error in its translation.
Rev 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος
Show me the koine Greek for 'Sunday'.
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
Ad Hominem. Deal with the facts of the OP and subsequent material in the thread that I provided.
See, Baptists aren't sola scriptura. This fact is being proven by your non-sequitur responses.
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
You are saying that a translation cannot be inspired and preserved word of God? Scripture refutes this idea, and is not even on topic of OP (it is simply a red herring).
Act_26:14 And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks.
Jesus is speaking in Hebrew (is it inspired of the Holy Ghost)?
Paul is hearing in the Hebrew and we have it recorded by Luke.
Luke recorded the words by translation into koine Greek.
Luke (Acts) is scripture.
All scripture is given by inspiration of God.
Scripture is preserved by God, as He promised to do (Psalms 12:6-7, etc)
The reason you must take this route, is because you cannot deal with the OP and subsequent material, which is sola scriptura, because Baptists aren't sola scriptura.
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
I had thought you intelligent. Please notice that word 'had'. Yet, to redeem yourself to present tense intelligent, I am sure you can properly identify KJB, that is, unless you choose to remain 'simple'. Perhaps, when you decide to be sola scriptura, you will address the OP and subsequent materials, instead of pretending to be 'infantile'.
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
Already addressed the fact that "the Lord's day" in koine Greek and meaning is different from "the Day of the LORD".
"... The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly. This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfilment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23..
This is not as the phrase "day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) which is written in the genitive masculine case (see 2 Peter 3:10, etc, and also so called septuaginta uses). ..." - What is the Lord's day according to scripture alone?
This is not as the phrase "day of the Lord" (ἡμέρα κυρίου) which is written in the genitive masculine case (see 2 Peter 3:10, etc, and also so called septuaginta uses). ..." - What is the Lord's day according to scripture alone?
Isaiah makes the clear distinction in Isaiah 13:9 "Day of the LORD", and Isaiah 58:13, "the Lord's ... day". Two differing days.
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You are the one who introduced what you claim to be a red herring since you brought the subject of the KJV into this thread. The verses of Scripture that you cited do not refute what I stated, and they do not at all assert that the KJV is inspired. You are appealing to what was directly given by inspiration of God to the apostles and NT prophets as part of the New Testament. Yes, the words of the New Testament were given by inspiration of God so they are the original language words of NT Scripture. It does not matter if they were translations of what was first stated in another language because the words that proceeded directly from God in the New Testament were part of a direct miracle of inspiration as part of NT Scripture.
You make an invalid comparison or jump to a wrong conclusion if you try to suggest that the process of the making of the KJV is the same thing as the giving of the NT to the apostles and NT prophets.
You demonstrate that your claims are not based on sola scriptura as you clearly add to the Scriptures your unproven claims for the KJV.
EVERY day!
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
Scripture?
Revelation 1:10 refutes the idea itself, as John indicates that he was in the Spirit on "the Lord's day" (singular), which means the day previous and the day after he was not in that day as he delineates the day from the other days.
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
Thank you for your time, but when you are serious about the OP, rather than taking this non-sensical route, please let me know.
The Lord owns every day. Every day is His.
Alofa Atu
Well-Known Member
God can only do the miracle once?
The NT. You just stated that, "the words of the New Testament were given by inspiration of God so they are the original language words of NT Scripture", yes?
Does the NT in any place or places, by any of the writers thereof, being inspired of the Holy Ghost, translate any of the OT text into the NT language? Is it inspired translation (of OT), and is it preserved in so doing into the NT?
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