JD
Forget it. I keep trying to have a conversation with you but you keep telling me what Calvin said or what you wrote on your web site. I suppose I could just paste in some of Owens or Gill's comments and we could have a quote-fest.
By the way, why do you think quoting Calvin is an effective means of debate?
This reminds me of a certain bank robbery where the robber yells, "Everybody be perfectly still! Alright everybody on the ground!" The puzzled hostages answer: "Well if I get on the ground, then I'm a movin', but if I remain still, then I'm not on the ground."
Anyway, I'll be a movin' and answer the question. If I quote Calvin purely to grandstand, then I agree that it's counter-productive, which his last quote seems to be. If, however, I'm quoting relevant exegesis from Calvin, then that's fair game, and warrants an answer. The purpose of citing Calvin is not to force people to have to defend him, or force people to have to agree with him, but only to obtain support. In other words, it's saying that it's not some
crazy Arminian that's saying this, but rather one of the patriarchs of your own theology who evaluated your point and determined it to be completely untenable.
Was Calvin a sub, infra or supralapsarian? Overwhelming evidence points to the fact that he was a 4-Point,
supralapsarian, symmetrical double-predestinationist, not at all in the Spurgeon mode. Now, no sooner that I say this that I immediately draw the charge, "And what color was his hair?" You asked, here's what I think. I think that Spurgeon would refer to Calvin's double predestination as "blashphemous" (link available upon request), and what Sproul defines as a "gross form of Hyper Calvinism" (link available upon request). Yet, at the same time, overwhelming evidence points to the fact that he held 4-Point Calvinist views. Many 5-Pointers simply do not see how 4-Point Calvinism can be reconciled with Calvinism period, much less Supralapsarianism. 4-Point Calvinism is not automatically
sublapsarianism. Calvin preached a theology of "predestination to Hell." Spurgeon called this "blasphemy," and yet Spurgeon was the 5-Pointer. Sorry if I've bored you with my verboseness. I'm simply trying to explain the subtle differences. I'd be glad to offer quotes to back every bit of this up, but I feel that you didn't want to get dragged to this point in the first place.
Summary, if I cite Calvin to support my specific exegesis, then that's fair game. If I cite him for grandstanding and to embarrass 5-Pointers, then that's probably not what I should have done, which is what I did above in the "incontestable" quote, since no specific exegesis was offered.
Calvin's
4-Point theology appeals to those who wish to believe in the Bible as it is written, and not to have to torture words like "world," "whole world," "all" and "any," and such like. Moreover, Calvin really believed in the 4-Point position, and he wrote it in convincing style.
Now that I'm off of that discussion, the answer from 4-Pointer, William MacDonald, is that the reason for Christ dying for the perishing (2Peter 2:1), is for a univeral purchase, which is not a universal redemption. Are you familiar with this concept?