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Where does believing faith come from part 4

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OldRegular

Well-Known Member
You cannot please God unless you first have faith. God is not going to give grace to someone who does not please him.

Heb 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.

Notice that to please God is conditional. You must believe that he is, and you must believe that he is a rewarder of those who diligently seek him. The very definition of grace is "favor" or that you please God. You cannot obtain God's grace without first having faith. Calvinists teach that grace means unmerited favor, but Heb 11:6 shows that God's favor is conditional.

So you are saying that grace is not unmerited favor but that it is merited or earned favor. Strange that the Apostle Paul would write the following:

Romans 11:6. And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.

Since you have spoken Winman I must assume that the Apostle paul is wrong.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Your confusion, however, as well as that of DHK, does not alter the fact that regeneration is an act of the Holy Spirit and precedes the Gift of Faith by the Holy Spirit.
I am not confused. But you clearly are. Here is your statement:
You cannot get me [OldRegular that is] to agree to something that Scripture disputes. The faith that the regenerate person exercises in the work of Jesus Christ for the Salvation of the elect is the GIFT OF GOD as clearly taught in Ephesians 2.
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You can't demonstrate this to be true. Exegete it if you will. Demonstrate it to all on the board. Show how the context is teaching that faith is the gift of God. Don't teach things that are not true, or you can't demonstrate to be true.
 

Winman

Active Member
So you are saying that grace is not unmerited favor but that it is merited or earned favor. Strange that the Apostle Paul would write the following:

Romans 11:6. And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.

Since you have spoken Winman I must assume that the Apostle paul is wrong.

I am simply quoting scripture. Hebrews 11:6 shows that to please God is conditional.

Heb 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.

Hebrews 11:6 says it is impossible to please God without faith. IMPOSSIBLE. So you must first have faith before God will show you grace or favor. And this verse explains what a person MUST believe in order to please God. You must believe that he is, that is, that he truly exists, but you must also believe that he is a rewarder of those that diligently seek him. Now, I didn't say that, the scriptures say that. God many times promises to reward those that seek him, the Lord Jesus said so many times.

Matt 7:7 Ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you:
8 For every one that asketh receiveth; and he that seeketh findeth; and to him that knocketh it shall be opened.
9 Or what man is there of you, whom if his son ask bread, will he give him a stone?
10 Or if he ask a fish, will he give him a serpent?
11 If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children, how much more shall your Father which is in heaven give good things to them that ask him?


Have you ever noticed that if you take the first letters of ask, seek, and knock that they spell ASK? I personally do not think that coincidence and believe the Lord intended the scriptures to be written in English, but that is another subject.

Calvinist's and Doctrines of Gracer's want to so remove the believer from salvation that it is amazing to me that they could believe themselves saved. The Lord does not do this. He says to ask, he says to seek, he says to knock.

Jesus said come unto me. Do your really think that after commanding someone to come to him, that Jesus would then refuse them everlasting life because they committed a work?

A Calvinist's idea of salvation

Jesus- Come unto me.

Sinner- Here I am Lord, please be merciful to me a sinner and save me from my sins.

Jesus- Sorry, I can't do that.

Sinner- Why?

Jesus- Because you tried to work your way to heaven, you tried to earn your own salvation.

Sinner- How did I do that?

Jesus- You came to me.

Sinner- But you said come to me.

Jesus- Nevertheless, you performed a work and I cannot save you.

Sinner- But I did exactly what you commanded me to do.

Jesus- I'm sorry, I cannot save you because you came to me.

This is how ridiculous Calvinist's and Gracer's are. They believe if you do exactly what Jesus himself commanded us to do, that these very actions will cause us to come short of salvation. That is absolutely ludicrous.

And if you read Matthew 7 you see Jesus compares our heavenly Father to our earthly father, and asks if any man would ask a loaf of bread from his earthly father, would he give him a stone? Or if he asked for a fish to eat, would his earthly father give him a serpent?

Do you understand what Jesus is saying here? He is trying to show us that our heavenly Father is more loving and compassionate than even our earthly father. And this is what Hebrews 11:6 is saying also. You must believe God is good. You must believe he loves you and is compassionate and merciful.

But that is not what Calvinism teaches, and this is what I find most appalling about this doctrine. Calvinism teaches that before the foundation of the world, before a man is even born, that God has determined that the vast majority of mankind will be tormented and tortured in the lake of fire for an endless eternity.

This does not sound like a loving God to me at all. Imagine an earthly father who would take his children the day they were born and throw them in a fire. The whole world would cry out for this man's execution including you. But this is actually your concept of our heavenly Father.

This is a terrible error, and exactly what Jesus is speaking about in Matthew 7. God is not some horrible tyrant who chooses that the majority of men be cast in the lake of fire. No, God is so loving that he gave his only begotten son to die for us, to save us. God wants every man to be saved.

John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.


God did not send Jesus to condemn us, he sent Jesus to save us. But this is not what Calvinism teaches.

Jesus is not going to condemn a man who comes to him. He is not going to condemn a man who calls out to him for mercy. He is not going to condemn a man who seeks him. This is what Jesus commanded us to do.

Believing is not a work. Believing means to trust or rely on someone else. It is a ceasing of all self effort and depending on the work of another.

When I get on an airliner, I do not do any work. I simply sit in the seat. The airplane and the pilots do all the work. I am also trusting my very life into their hands, if the plane malfunctions, or the pilots make an error it could cost me my life. This is trusting or believing. It is not a work. I don't flap my arms to help the plane fly. I just sit there and completely rely on the plane and the pilots to do the necessary work to get me to my destination.

Calvinism makes faith a work. It is not. It is a rest, it is a ceasing from self-effort.

But you have to come to Christ, just as you would have to board a plane. If you don't get on the plane and trust it, it cannot take you anywhere. And if you do not come to Jesus, he cannot save you. But Jesus is not going to condemn you for coming to him, that is exactly what he commanded you to do.
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
posted by Winman

A Calvinist's idea of salvation

Jesus- Come unto me.

Sinner- Here I am Lord, please be merciful to me a sinner and save me from my sins.

Jesus- Sorry, I can't do that.

Sinner- Why?

Jesus- Because you tried to work your way to heaven, you tried to earn your own salvation.

Sinner- How did I do that?

Jesus- You came to me.

Sinner- But you said come to me.

Jesus- Nevertheless, you performed a work and I cannot save you.

Sinner- But I did exactly what you commanded me to do.

Jesus- I'm sorry, I cannot save you because you came to me.

This just shows how silly your posts have become recently. Furthermore, your ignorance of the Doctrines of Grace is shameful for one who attempts to discuss them!
 

Winman

Active Member
This just shows how silly your posts have become recently. Furthermore, your ignorance of the Doctrines of Grace is shameful for one who attempts to discuss them!

There is nothing silly about it, and it accurately describes how some Doctrines of Gracer's and Calvinists believe. Whenever a non-Cal like myself says we believed on Christ, you are quick to say that we are making ourselves sovereign and performing a work. Calvinist's and Gracer's like yourself try to get around this by saying God gave you the faith to believe. That way you can say he did all the work and you did nothing.

But either way, if coming to Christ is a work, then you are performing a work just like us.
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
I am not confused. But you clearly are. Here is your statement:

You can't demonstrate this to be true. Exegete it if you will. Demonstrate it to all on the board. Show how the context is teaching that faith is the gift of God. Don't teach things that are not true, or you can't demonstrate to be true.

The fact that faith is the gift of GOD is clear to anyone who can understand English.

Ephesians 2:8, 9 KJV
8. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9. Not of works, lest any man should boast.


Ephesians 2:8, 9 NASB
8. For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;
9. not as a result of works, that no one should boast.


Ephesians 2:8, 9 NKJV
8. For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,
9. not of works, lest anyone should boast.


The Scripture states that Salvation is by grace, that is by the unmerited favor of God. By salvation is meant all the favors that God supplies to His "chosen ones": regeneration, conversion, union with Jesus Christ, forgiveness, justification, ...... and ultimately glorification. So at this point Salvation is an accomplished fact and is all of Grace, the gift of God. now where does faith enter in. If Salvation is by grace, the unmerited favor of God then faith cannot be a work since works have no place in Salvation. Faith is simply the means which God has appointed for man to realize what God has done for him. Perhaps Hebrews says it as well as can be said: 11:1. Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.

Scripture has already told us that Salvation is a gift. The means through which we acknowledge and enjoy that salvation is through faith. Scripture says faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God. Now we have already been told that Salvation is the gift of God since it is by grace. Why then would Paul tell us again that Salvation is the gift of God? [Now I confess that no matter how many times Scripture repeats this truth some will not believe.] Paul is not redundant here, he gives the reader credit for some spiritual understanding as does the translator. Paul is explicitly saying that FAITH is the gift of God.

Now DHK you would not believe anything I would say about the above Scripture. You even have difficulty believing the above Scripture. Perhaps you will believe someone who knew far more about Scripture than the two of us combined, John Gill. Gill writes of this passage:

Verse 8. For by grace are ye saved, &c.] This is to be understood, not of temporal salvation, nor of preservation in Christ, nor of providential salvation in order to calling, and much less of being put in a way of salvation, or only in a salvable state; but of spiritual salvation, and that actual; for salvation was not only resolved upon, contrived and secured in the covenant of grace, for the persons here spoken to, but it was actually obtained and wrought out for them by Christ, and was actually applied unto them by the Spirit; and even as to the full enjoyment of it, they had it in faith and hope; and because of the certainty of it, they are said to be already saved; and besides, were representatively possessed of it in Christ their head: those interested in this salvation, are not all mankind, but particular persons; and such who were by nature children of wrath, and sinners of the Gentiles; and it is a salvation from sin, Satan, the law, its curse and condemnation, and from eternal death, and wrath to come; and includes all the blessings of grace and glory; and is entirely owing to free grace: for by grace is not meant the Gospel, nor gifts of grace, nor grace infused; but the free favour of God, to which salvation in all its branches is ascribed; as election, redemption, justification, pardon, adoption, regeneration, and eternal glory: the Syriac, Arabic, and Ethiopic versions read, "by his grace", and so some copies; and it may refer to the grace of all the three Persons; for men are saved by the grace of the Father, who drew the plan of salvation, appointed men to it, made a covenant with his Son, in which it is provided and secured, and sent him into the world to obtain it; and by the grace of the Son, who engaged as a surety to effect it, assumed human nature, obeyed and suffered in it for that purpose, and has procured it; and by the grace of the Spirit, who makes men sensible of their need of it, brings it near, sets it before them, and applies it to them, and gives them faith and hope in it: hence it follows,

through faith, and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; salvation is through faith, not as a cause or condition of salvation, or as what adds anything to the blessing itself; but it is the way, or means, or instrument, which God has appointed, for the receiving and enjoying it, that so it might appear to be all of grace; and this faith is not the produce of man's free will and power, but it is the free gift of God; and therefore salvation through it is consistent with salvation by grace; since that itself is of grace, lies entirely in receiving grace and gives all the glory to the grace of God: the sense of this last clause may be, that salvation is not of ourselves; it is not of our desiring nor of our deserving, nor of our performing, but is of the free grace of God: though faith is elsewhere represented as the gift of God, Joh 6:65 Php 1:29 and it is called the special gift of faith>>.

{The editor [of this particular source if Gill's writings] asked the following question from a Greek and Hebrew professor:

' 'In this verse, to what does the word "that" refer to? Adam
Clarke, Wesley & company say that it is neuter plural and
"Faith" is feminine hence it cannot refer to faith, (Such
an admission would destroy their theological system.)
However "Grace" is also feminine as is "Salvation".'

His reply was:

' Here you ask a wonderful theological/exegetical question
to which I can only give an opinion, and not a definitive
answer. The problem is that there is NO precise referent.
Grace is feminine. Faith is feminine. And even Salvation
(as a noun) is feminine. Yet it must be one of these
three at least, and maybe more than one, or all three in
conjunction. Since all three come from God and not from
man, the latter might seem the more likely. However, it
is a tautology to say salvation and grace are "nor of
yourselves," and in that case it certainly looks more like
the passage is really pointing out that man cannot even
take credit for his own act of faith, but that faith was
itself created by God and implanted in us that we might
believe (i.e. the normal Calvinistic position). In which
regard the whole theological issue of "regeneration
preceding faith" comes into play. So, that is basically
my opinion, though others obviously disagree strenuously,
but from an exegetical standpoint, the other positions
have to explain away the matter of the tautology.'' ' '

Whether you accept the reply or not, it is sufficient to show that the Greek is not as definitive in this verse as some scholars would have you believe. Editor} [Perhaps some of our Greek scholars on this Forum would care to wade in! OR]

Verse 9. Not of works, &c.] Of any kind, moral or ceremonial, before or after conversion, done without faith or in it, nor of these in any sense; works are neither the moving causes, nor the procuring causes, nor the helping causes, nor "causa sine qua non", or conditions of salvation; the best works that are done by men, are not done of themselves, but by the grace of God, and therefore can never merit at his hand: and salvation is put upon such a foot,

lest any man should boast; of his works before God, and unto men; wherefore he has denied works any place in justification and salvation, in order to exclude all boasting in man; and has fixed it in a way of grace, and has chosen and called poor sinful worthless creatures to enjoy it, that whoever glories, may glory in the Lord.
 

Winman

Active Member
Old Regular, you cannot seem to grasp that the grace that saves us is received through faith. Do you not understand what the word "through" means in Eph 2:8?

Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:

If I said I drove to New Jersey from New York through the Lincoln Tunnel, would you have trouble understanding that? Of course not. But you cannot grasp that grace is received through faith, even though that is what the verse clearly says.

And I showed you other verses that completely support this.

Rom 4:16 Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also

If you can understand this verse, it is showing that salvation must be received through faith in order to be considered of grace. If salvation were through works it would not be considered grace.

Rom 5:2 By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.

This verse shows that it is by faith that we have access or entry into God's grace.

Now here is the problem. If God gives you faith, then you are receiving faith through grace. This is exactly the very opposite of what all these scriptures are saying.

Wouldn't you argree that God giving a man faith is gracious? Is it not showing man favor? Of course it is.

So, you have the order wrong, you have it 180 degrees backwards of what the scriptures are truly saying.

Faith------> Grace............Correct and scriptural

Grace-----> Faith.............False and unscriptural
 
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OldRegular

Well-Known Member
Originally Posted by Winman
You cannot please God unless you first have faith. God is not going to give grace to someone who does not please him.

Anyone who would write the above has nothing to say about grace!
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
The fact that faith is the gift of GOD is clear to anyone who can understand English.

Ephesians 2:8, 9 KJV
8. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9. Not of works, lest any man should boast.
I don't want biased commentaries. I want straightforward grammatical exegesis, which apparently you don't understand. The subject here is salvation. This subject (though inferred) is very obvious. You even stated as much in your post.

Now lets proceed:
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves; it [salvation] is the gift of God: not of works [i.e., salvation] lest any man should boast.
--by grace is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.
--through faith is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.
--The subject of this verse (or two verses) is salvation through and through. The pronoun "it" refers back directly to salvation, not to a simple prepositional phrase, "through faith."
"Ye are saved." The receiver of the action is more important here than the doer of the action. The receiver of the action is simply clarified more by prepositional phrases. And then the personal pronoun "it" refers back to the receiver of the action--saved--the one being saved--salvation. The verse couldn't be any clearer. Salvation is the gift of God.

Romans 6:23--the gift of God is eternal life.
 

Winman

Active Member
Anyone who would write the above has nothing to say about grace!

I have showed you that a man must have faith to receive God's grace.

If God gives man faith, then God is partial, he is showing favoritism to the elect. This absolutely contradicts his own word.

Rom 2:11 For there is no respect of persons with God.

Acts 10:34 Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:

In James the scriptures go to great length to say that showing partiality to certain persons over another is sin.

James 2:1 My brethren, have not the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Lord of glory, with respect of persons.
2 For if there come unto your assembly a man with a gold ring, in goodly apparel, and there come in also a poor man in vile raiment;
3 And ye have respect to him that weareth the gay clothing, and say unto him, Sit thou here in a good place; and say to the poor, Stand thou there, or sit here under my footstool:
4 Are ye not then partial in yourselves, and are become judges of evil thoughts?
5 Hearken, my beloved brethren, Hath not God chosen the poor of this world rich in faith, and heirs of the kingdom which he hath promised to them that love him?
6 But ye have despised the poor. Do not rich men oppress you, and draw you before the judgment seats?
7 Do not they blaspheme that worthy name by the which ye are called?
8 If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well:
9 But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.


In verse 9 James says if we have respect for one person over another we commit sin. But this is what Calvinism teaches, it teaches that God is partial. For some reason that no Calvinist can ever explain, God elects certain persons to eternal life, and lets the vast majority perish in everlasting torment.

So, you have God committing the very sin he tells us not to commit. You have God showing great mercy and grace to a few fortunate people, and showing hatred and wrath to all others.

And you cannot even say why.

2 Chron 19:7 Wherefore now let the fear of the LORD be upon you; take heed and do it: for there is no iniquity with the LORD our God, nor respect of persons, nor taking of gifts.

It is amazing. I have provided hundreds of scriptures over the past few months that contradict Calvinism and the Doctrines of Grace, and you simply ignore all of them.

And I am even more amazed at the doctrines of Calvinism and the Doctrines of Grace. It is not so much they are in error, anyone can fall into error at times, but these doctrines teach exactly the opposite of what the scriptures say. It is not minor error, it is major error. As I've said before, you could not be in greater error if you tried.
 
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Winman

Active Member
I don't want biased commentaries. I want straightforward grammatical exegesis, which apparently you don't understand. The subject here is salvation. This subject (though inferred) is very obvious. You even stated as much in your post.

Now lets proceed:
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves; it [salvation] is the gift of God: not of works [i.e., salvation] lest any man should boast.
--by grace is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.
--through faith is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.
--The subject of this verse (or two verses) is salvation through and through. The pronoun "it" refers back directly to salvation, not to a simple prepositional phrase, "through faith."
"Ye are saved." The receiver of the action is more important here than the doer of the action. The receiver of the action is simply clarified more by prepositional phrases. And then the personal pronoun "it" refers back to the receiver of the action--saved--the one being saved--salvation. The verse couldn't be any clearer. Salvation is the gift of God.

Romans 6:23--the gift of God is eternal life.

Excellent and correct. :thumbsup:
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
I don't want biased commentaries. I want straightforward grammatical exegesis, which apparently you don't understand. The subject here is salvation. This subject (though inferred) is very obvious. You even stated as much in your post.

Now lets proceed:
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves; it [salvation] is the gift of God: not of works [i.e., salvation] lest any man should boast.
--by grace is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.
--through faith is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.
--The subject of this verse (or two verses) is salvation through and through. The pronoun "it" refers back directly to salvation, not to a simple prepositional phrase, "through faith."
"Ye are saved." The receiver of the action is more important here than the doer of the action. The receiver of the action is simply clarified more by prepositional phrases. And then the personal pronoun "it" refers back to the receiver of the action--saved--the one being saved--salvation. The verse couldn't be any clearer. Salvation is the gift of God.

Romans 6:23--the gift of God is eternal life.

Praise the LORD!! Draw near and hearken all ye on board! And they say there is no such thing as a miracle. And they say there is nothing new under the sun. Little do THEY know. All THEY need do is visit the Baptist Forum and see for themselves. We have on this Forum one who is completely unbiased. The only problem is that DHK would have flunked English Grammar if he had a teacher who required diagraming [ or parsing as they said in the olden times] of sentences.

Now lets apply a little commonsense to the passage.

For by grace are ye saved

If salvation is by grace, the unmerited favor of God, then it is obviously a GIFT! Can I get an amen?

through faith;

So what part does faith play in this GIFT? Faith is the means, not through which God gives Salvation, since as noted above Salvation is the GIFT of GOD; but faith is the vehicle through which we comprehend what God has done for us. I believe I said something similar in my earlier post. I hope so!

and that not of yourselves:

And what not of yourselves? Salvation? NO! NO! NO! We have already been told that Salvation is the GIFT of GOD. Obviously Salvation is not of yourself, ourselves, or myself, Salvation is the GIFT of GOD! Paul is not repeating himself. Paul is providing some additional information {for the unlearned and unbelieving?}. THAT! THAT! To which Paul is referring is FAITH. THAT FAITH is not of yourself! THAT FAITH is not of ourselves! THAT FAITH is not of myself! Well! if THAT FAITH is not of any of us where does it come from? Does the Apostle leave us in the dark, in limbo? NO! He tells us!

it is the gift of God:

IT, THAT FAITH is the GIFT of GOD.

And I praise the LORD that it is HIS GIFT to me!
 
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DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Praise the LORD!! Draw near and hearken all ye on board! And they say there is no such thing as a miracle. And they say there is nothing new under the sun. Little do THEY know. All THEY need do is visit the Baptist Forum and see for themselves. We have on this Forum one who is completely unbiased. The only problem is that DHK would have flunked English Grammar if he had a teacher who required diagraming [ or parsing as they said in the olden times] of sentences.

Now lets apply a little commonsense to the passage.

For by grace are ye saved

If salvation is by grace, the unmerited favor of God, then it is obviously a GIFT! Can I get an amen?

through faith;

So what part does faith play in this GIFT? Faith is the means, not through which God gives Salvation, since as noted above Salvation is the GIFT of GOD; but faith is the vehicle through which we comprehend what God has done for us. I believe I said something similar in my earlier post. I hope so!

and that not of yourselves:

And what not of yourselves? Salvation? NO! NO! NO! We have already been told that Salvation is the GIFT of GOD. Obviously Salvation is not of yourself, ourselves, or myself, Salvation is the GIFT of GOD! Paul is not repeating himself. Paul is providing some additional information {for the unlearned and unbelieving?}. THAT! THAT! To which Paul is referring is FAITH. THAT FAITH is not of yourself! THAT FAITH is not of ourselves! THAT FAITH is not of myself! Well! if THAT FAITH is not of any of us where does it come from? Does the Apostle leave us in the dark, in limbo? NO! He tells us!

it is the gift of God:

IT, THAT FAITH is the GIFT of GOD.

And I praise the LORD that it is HIS GIFT to me!
Go ahead diagram it! The prepositional phrase through faith refers to salvation [IT], the entire subject, though inferred at times. It--salvation, is "through faith," the means by which we obtain salvation. Salvation is obtained by faith and only by faith. It is the gift of God. IT is the subject. IT refers to salvation. IT does not refer to faith, but rather to salvation. Go back to the beginning of the verse 4. That is where this sentence begins and doesn't end until verse 9.
The passage describes the result of our salvation; the benefits of it. Verses 8 and 9 tell how it came about, the conclusion, thus it starts with "for".
 

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
The fact that faith is the gift of GOD is clear to anyone who can understand English.

Ephesians 2:8, 9 KJV
8. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9. Not of works, lest any man should boast.


Ephesians 2:8, 9 NASB
8. For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;
9. not as a result of works, that no one should boast.


Ephesians 2:8, 9 NKJV
8. For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,
9. not of works, lest anyone should boast.


The Scripture states that Salvation is by grace, that is by the unmerited favor of God. By salvation is meant all the favors that God supplies to His "chosen ones": regeneration, conversion, union with Jesus Christ, forgiveness, justification, ...... and ultimately glorification. So at this point Salvation is an accomplished fact and is all of Grace, the gift of God. now where does faith enter in. If Salvation is by grace, the unmerited favor of God then faith cannot be a work since works have no place in Salvation. Faith is simply the means which God has appointed for man to realize what God has done for him. Perhaps Hebrews says it as well as can be said: 11:1. Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.

Scripture has already told us that Salvation is a gift. The means through which we acknowledge and enjoy that salvation is through faith. Scripture says faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God. Now we have already been told that Salvation is the gift of God since it is by grace. Why then would Paul tell us again that Salvation is the gift of God? [Now I confess that no matter how many times Scripture repeats this truth some will not believe.] Paul is not redundant here, he gives the reader credit for some spiritual understanding as does the translator. Paul is explicitly saying that FAITH is the gift of God.

Now DHK you would not believe anything I would say about the above Scripture. You even have difficulty believing the above Scripture. Perhaps you will believe someone who knew far more about Scripture than the two of us combined, John Gill. Gill writes of this passage:

Verse 8. For by grace are ye saved, &c.] This is to be understood, not of temporal salvation, nor of preservation in Christ, nor of providential salvation in order to calling, and much less of being put in a way of salvation, or only in a salvable state; but of spiritual salvation, and that actual; for salvation was not only resolved upon, contrived and secured in the covenant of grace, for the persons here spoken to, but it was actually obtained and wrought out for them by Christ, and was actually applied unto them by the Spirit; and even as to the full enjoyment of it, they had it in faith and hope; and because of the certainty of it, they are said to be already saved; and besides, were representatively possessed of it in Christ their head: those interested in this salvation, are not all mankind, but particular persons; and such who were by nature children of wrath, and sinners of the Gentiles; and it is a salvation from sin, Satan, the law, its curse and condemnation, and from eternal death, and wrath to come; and includes all the blessings of grace and glory; and is entirely owing to free grace: for by grace is not meant the Gospel, nor gifts of grace, nor grace infused; but the free favour of God, to which salvation in all its branches is ascribed; as election, redemption, justification, pardon, adoption, regeneration, and eternal glory: the Syriac, Arabic, and Ethiopic versions read, "by his grace", and so some copies; and it may refer to the grace of all the three Persons; for men are saved by the grace of the Father, who drew the plan of salvation, appointed men to it, made a covenant with his Son, in which it is provided and secured, and sent him into the world to obtain it; and by the grace of the Son, who engaged as a surety to effect it, assumed human nature, obeyed and suffered in it for that purpose, and has procured it; and by the grace of the Spirit, who makes men sensible of their need of it, brings it near, sets it before them, and applies it to them, and gives them faith and hope in it: hence it follows,

through faith, and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; salvation is through faith, not as a cause or condition of salvation, or as what adds anything to the blessing itself; but it is the way, or means, or instrument, which God has appointed, for the receiving and enjoying it, that so it might appear to be all of grace; and this faith is not the produce of man's free will and power, but it is the free gift of God; and therefore salvation through it is consistent with salvation by grace; since that itself is of grace, lies entirely in receiving grace and gives all the glory to the grace of God: the sense of this last clause may be, that salvation is not of ourselves; it is not of our desiring nor of our deserving, nor of our performing, but is of the free grace of God: though faith is elsewhere represented as the gift of God, Joh 6:65 Php 1:29 and it is called the special gift of faith>>.

{The editor [of this particular source if Gill's writings] asked the following question from a Greek and Hebrew professor:

' 'In this verse, to what does the word "that" refer to? Adam
Clarke, Wesley & company say that it is neuter plural and
"Faith" is feminine hence it cannot refer to faith, (Such
an admission would destroy their theological system.)
However "Grace" is also feminine as is "Salvation".'

His reply was:

' Here you ask a wonderful theological/exegetical question
to which I can only give an opinion, and not a definitive
answer. The problem is that there is NO precise referent.
Grace is feminine. Faith is feminine. And even Salvation
(as a noun) is feminine. Yet it must be one of these
three at least, and maybe more than one, or all three in
conjunction. Since all three come from God and not from
man, the latter might seem the more likely. However, it
is a tautology to say salvation and grace are "nor of
yourselves," and in that case it certainly looks more like
the passage is really pointing out that man cannot even
take credit for his own act of faith, but that faith was
itself created by God and implanted in us that we might
believe (i.e. the normal Calvinistic position). In which
regard the whole theological issue of "regeneration
preceding faith" comes into play. So, that is basically
my opinion, though others obviously disagree strenuously,
but from an exegetical standpoint, the other positions
have to explain away the matter of the tautology.'' ' '

Whether you accept the reply or not, it is sufficient to show that the Greek is not as definitive in this verse as some scholars would have you believe. Editor} [Perhaps some of our Greek scholars on this Forum would care to wade in! OR]

Verse 9. Not of works, &c.] Of any kind, moral or ceremonial, before or after conversion, done without faith or in it, nor of these in any sense; works are neither the moving causes, nor the procuring causes, nor the helping causes, nor "causa sine qua non", or conditions of salvation; the best works that are done by men, are not done of themselves, but by the grace of God, and therefore can never merit at his hand: and salvation is put upon such a foot,

lest any man should boast; of his works before God, and unto men; wherefore he has denied works any place in justification and salvation, in order to exclude all boasting in man; and has fixed it in a way of grace, and has chosen and called poor sinful worthless creatures to enjoy it, that whoever glories, may glory in the Lord.
I understand english...and it takes a huge leap in logic to think faith is the gift being spoken of. Try the greek as well...it doesn't agree with you either.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
DHK,

There are some issues with your post:

I don't want biased commentaries. I want straightforward grammatical exegesis, which apparently you don't understand. The subject here is salvation. This subject (though inferred) is very obvious. You even stated as much in your post.

Now lets proceed:
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves; it [salvation] is the gift of God: not of works [i.e., salvation] lest any man should boast.
--by grace is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.
--through faith is a prepositional phrase that defines the subject--salvation.

There is nuance in the Greek that you are missing. The Greek particle γαρ (meaning for) appears and this indicates a further explanation of the material that Paul has written before, most notably verses 4-7. In those verses there are 3 prominent aorist verbs--made us alive, raised us up, and seated us. These verbs all have God as the subject and they all have the Greek preposition συν (meaning together with) as part of the word. Paul inextricably links these works so that it cannot be missed that God does these things at the same time He was doing these things to Christ Himself.

Also, the nuance of "you have been saved" is missed. This construction is of a passive participle (meaning that you cannot act upon yourself) and a "helping" to be verb, which is plural. The passive participle is also perfect, meaning something happened in the past and the result is ongoing to the present.

Also, "grace" is articular whereas "faith" is not, signifying the emphasis here is on grace.

So, in both these cases it is not as simple as stating "grammar" without looking at the nuance of text's cases and moods.

--The subject of this verse (or two verses) is salvation through and through. The pronoun "it" refers back directly to salvation, not to a simple prepositional phrase, "through faith."

This is not necessarily the case. Is it most likely that the subject is "Salvation?" Absolutely. Is it impossible for the neuter "this" to refer to the feminine "grace" or "faith?" No. A.T. Robertson states that pronouns and nouns generally agree in gender, but it is not required.

Secondly, there is no pronoun "it" in the Greek text.

A better, albeit more wooden translation, is this: For by grace you have been being saved through faith and this is not out of you, of God (is) the gift. "Is" having to be supplied to make it translate into English, as is often the case. Many times, in Greek, the "is" is not supplied and is assumed.

"Ye are saved." The receiver of the action is more important here than the doer of the action. The receiver of the action is simply clarified more by prepositional phrases. And then the personal pronoun "it" refers back to the receiver of the action--saved--the one being saved--salvation. The verse couldn't be any clearer. Salvation is the gift of God.

Again, the "it" isn't there. I'll agree that the receiver is important, but it isn't nearly as important as the doer--for the whole preceding passage that this is describing is all about God's action, not ours.

So, your premise about the receiver being more important is, textually, highly unlikely.

Further the textual question doesn't revolve around "it," mostly because it isn't there in the text. The question revolves around "this" and what it refers to. Again, it is most likely that "this" is referring to salvation (see verses 4-7). Paul is likely arguing that grace and faith are two sides of the same coin--a coin given by God Himself.

Blessings,

The Archangel
 

Amy.G

New Member
DHK,

There are some issues with your post:



There is nuance in the Greek that you are missing. The Greek particle γαρ (meaning for) appears and this indicates a further explanation of the material that Paul has written before, most notably verses 4-7. In those verses there are 3 prominent aorist verbs--made us alive, raised us up, and seated us. These verbs all have God as the subject and they all have the Greek preposition συν (meaning together with) as part of the word. Paul inextricably links these works so that it cannot be missed that God does these things at the same time He was doing these things to Christ Himself.

Also, the nuance of "you have been saved" is missed. This construction is of a passive participle (meaning that you cannot act upon yourself) and a "helping" to be verb, which is plural. The passive participle is also perfect, meaning something happened in the past and the result is ongoing to the present.

Also, "grace" is articular whereas "faith" is not, signifying the emphasis here is on grace.

So, in both these cases it is not as simple as stating "grammar" without looking at the nuance of text's cases and moods.



This is not necessarily the case. Is it most likely that the subject is "Salvation?" Absolutely. Is it impossible for the neuter "this" to refer to the feminine "grace" or "faith?" No. A.T. Robertson states that pronouns and nouns generally agree in gender, but it is not required.

Secondly, there is no pronoun "it" in the Greek text.

A better, albeit more wooden translation, is this: For by grace you have been being saved through faith and this is not out of you, of God (is) the gift. "Is" having to be supplied to make it translate into English, as is often the case. Many times, in Greek, the "is" is not supplied and is assumed.



Again, the "it" isn't there. I'll agree that the receiver is important, but it isn't nearly as important as the doer--for the whole preceding passage that this is describing is all about God's action, not ours.

So, your premise about the receiver being more important is, textually, highly unlikely.

Further the textual question doesn't revolve around "it," mostly because it isn't there in the text. The question revolves around "this" and what it refers to. Again, it is most likely that "this" is referring to salvation (see verses 4-7). Paul is likely arguing that grace and faith are two sides of the same coin--a coin given by God Himself.

Blessings,

The Archangel

So in other words, knowing the English language in which our Bible is translated isn't good enough. We have to know Greek and know that "it" wasn't in the Greek, and understand participles and must know whether the word was masculine or feminine, past or present tense and so on and so on and so on........................

I think I'll just toss by English Bibles in the trash. I am unable to understand them.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
DHK,

There are some issues with your post:

There is nuance in the Greek that you are missing. The Greek particle γαρ (meaning for) appears and this indicates a further explanation of the material that Paul has written before, most notably verses 4-7. In those verses there are 3 prominent aorist verbs--made us alive, raised us up, and seated us. These verbs all have God as the subject and they all have the Greek preposition συν (meaning together with) as part of the word. Paul inextricably links these works so that it cannot be missed that God does these things at the same time He was doing these things to Christ Himself.
Right, gar indicates further explanation almost like a conclusion the whole matter. A similar word would be "therefore." I am aware of the subject and the three previous verbs. That doesn't change the nature of the two prepositional phrases of verse 8.
Also, the nuance of "you have been saved" is missed. This construction is of a passive participle (meaning that you cannot act upon yourself) and a "helping" to be verb, which is plural. The passive participle is also perfect, meaning something happened in the past and the result is ongoing to the present.
We can agree on that theology. It still has no effect on the grammar--the two prepositional phrases used in verse 8 to define salvation and not faith.
Also, "grace" is articular whereas "faith" is not, signifying the emphasis here is on grace.

So, in both these cases it is not as simple as stating "grammar" without looking at the nuance of text's cases and moods.
The only point here that needs to be made, and forcefully so, is grace is the part that God does and faith is the part that we do. This is emphasized by A.T. Robertson.
This is not necessarily the case. Is it most likely that the subject is "Salvation?" Absolutely. Is it impossible for the neuter "this" to refer to the feminine "grace" or "faith?" No. A.T. Robertson states that pronouns and nouns generally agree in gender, but it is not required.

Secondly, there is no pronoun "it" in the Greek text.

A better, albeit more wooden translation, is this: For by grace you have been being saved through faith and this is not out of you, of God (is) the gift. "Is" having to be supplied to make it translate into English, as is often the case. Many times, in Greek, the "is" is not supplied and is assumed.
Salvation is definitely the subject from verse 4 to 9. Everything that he says revolves around that one subject. Even in your translation you still have two prepositional phrases to deal with: "by grace" and "through faith." What do prepositional phrases function as? They further define the subject or the verb.
OR previously gave three or four different translations, all of which included "it is". Clearly most translators think that the words "it is," is the best way to understand what is being said here. I am aware that the words don't appear in the Greek, but something must make sense. What connects "the gift of God." Salvation is the subject running throughout the entire passage. Salvation is the gift of God, as it is told us in many other Scripture passages. There is no other Scripture passage in the Bible that tells us that "faith is the gift of God" (for the unbeliever). None! nada! This is the only proof text that the Calvinist has to fall on. It denies all that the rest of the Bible says concerning this subject. Therefore, hermeneutically, it would be wrong to connect faith to gift of God. It contradicts the rest of the Bible, as well as plain common sense grammar. Salvation is the gift of God. That is what the verse says.
Again, the "it" isn't there. I'll agree that the receiver is important, but it isn't nearly as important as the doer--for the whole preceding passage that this is describing is all about God's action, not ours.
Not necessarily. Remember there is a break at verse 8; a break caused by that word "gar." With that comes this one last concluding thought making the receiver more important than the doer, for here the receiver is the recipient of the great salvation which God has provided, and which God has been describing. Every phrase in this verse describes, not God, but what God has provided.
Further the textual question doesn't revolve around "it," mostly because it isn't there in the text. The question revolves around "this" and what it refers to. Again, it is most likely that "this" is referring to salvation (see verses 4-7). Paul is likely arguing that grace and faith are two sides of the same coin--a coin given by God Himself.
Again a subject must be inferred. "the gift of God" doesn't stand alone. It must refer to something. Either it refers to salvation or it refers to faith. Faith is the object of a prepositional faith. It cannot refer to faith. It refers to salvation, the subject of the entire passage from verse four to nine.

Salvation is by grace.
Salvation is through faith.
Salvation is not of oneself.
Salvation is the gift of God.
Salvation is not of works.
Salvation cannot be boasted of.

Salvation is the one subject that every part of these two verses refer back to.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
Right, gar indicates further explanation almost like a conclusion the whole matter. A similar word would be "therefore." I am aware of the subject and the three previous verbs. That doesn't change the nature of the two prepositional phrases of verse 8.

No. "Gar" does not indicate a "conclusion." Paul makes his somewhat linear arguments through the use of gar. Rarely does he conclude an argument with gar.

There is no other Scripture passage in the Bible that tells us that "faith is the gift of God" (for the unbeliever). None! nada! This is the only proof text that the Calvinist has to fall on. It denies all that the rest of the Bible says concerning this subject. Therefore, hermeneutically, it would be wrong to connect faith to gift of God. It contradicts the rest of the Bible, as well as plain common sense grammar. Salvation is the gift of God. That is what the verse says.

You are ignoring that faith and grace are inextricably linked. Also, you are ignoring that grace has the definite article. This makes the answer to the question "How is one saved?" grace.

Further, how can an heart, such as all of mankind, that desires "only evil continually" produce faith unless God does a work?

No good Calvinist denies that one needs faith and one needs to exercise said faith. The question, as you know, is this: Since salvation is all of God and faith is required for salvation, how can God not provide faith as well?

Especially because of Paul's entire argument in Ephesians 2, it must be seen that grace and faith are two sides of the same coin--two parts of the same gift. This is emphasized by Paul's use of δωρον at the end of v. 8. That kind of "gift" is only by grace.

Not necessarily. Remember there is a break at verse 8; a break caused by that word "gar." With that comes this one last concluding thought making the receiver more important than the doer, for here the receiver is the recipient of the great salvation which God has provided, and which God has been describing. Every phrase in this verse describes, not God, but what God has provided.

No, there isn't a break. "Gar" doesn't cause breaks, "gar" links.

Again a subject must be inferred. "the gift of God" doesn't stand alone. It must refer to something. Either it refers to salvation or it refers to faith. Faith is the object of a prepositional faith. It cannot refer to faith. It refers to salvation, the subject of the entire passage from verse four to nine.

Yes, "The gift of God" is a dependent clause with the subject being "Gift." δωρον (gift) comes last in the sentence showing that what Paul's emphasis is--the gift of salvation (not the reward of salvation).

Blessings,

The Archangel
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
I understand english...and it takes a huge leap in logic to think faith is the gift being spoken of. Try the greek as well...it doesn't agree with you either.

Well I will take John Gill over webdog, DHK, or Winman any time!
 
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