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Who did Christ die for?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by BrotherJames, Oct 9, 2007.

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  1. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    Thanks. You saved me the trouble. ;)
     
  2. BrotherJames

    BrotherJames New Member

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    I guess Jesus was lying when he said you must come unto him like a child in order to enter the kingdom of heaven. Or the kids back then were very smart.
     
  3. reformedbeliever

    reformedbeliever New Member

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    I suppose Paul was lying under the guidance of the Holy Spirit when he told Timothy to study to show yourselves approved, to not be ashamed, to be a workman, rightly dividing the word of truth. :rolleyes:
     
  4. pinoybaptist

    pinoybaptist Active Member
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    Faith:
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    Chapter and verse, please ?
     
  5. Isaiah40:28

    Isaiah40:28 New Member

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    You mean this answer of yours from page 5?
    No where in this response do I see you stating why Christ had to die for people already in hell.

    Here's another of your responses from page 7 to the same question.

    Again, where is the reason or purpose for Christ dying for people who in your own words, "had already chosen not to believe"?
    Why did He have to die for them then? Their destiny was chosen and unchangeable.
    What could His death do for them?

    Please don't say that I "just don't like the answers".
    That's a completely baseless comment.
     
  6. BrotherJames

    BrotherJames New Member

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    Matthew 18:3 (King James Version)
    And said, Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.
     
  7. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    Yeah, this I fear is true for many Calvinists. Calvinism is "easy shorthand" for easy ecclesiology, hold the eschatology, pls.

    I was reading a quote Stephen Lam last night saying that in the Far East, one of the forbidden things to preach in the Chinese church is the second coming of Christ. That the "dragon" government (Satan) has blinded their eyes to it.

    Then he made the comment that here, where we could study it, most churches don't try Too hard to understand. Like those mockers in 2Pet, they'd rather say "Where is the sign of His coming; for since our fathers died, all things continue as the have."

    Now I realize many of you grew up reading comic books and doing papers from "Cliff's Notes," but let's get serious when it comes to scripture, shall we. Study of scripture is what YOU glean out of the Bible, not someone else's "Cliff Notes."

    skypair
     
  8. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    I think there are a couple of ways that we can both fail..

    1) We can't come to a common understanding of what "election" means.

    2) We can't agree that faith is given by God but REPENTANT BELIEF is what we must have before God will give us faith and regenerate us.

    3) Election and individual volition are both scriptural. We fail to come to a common understanding of them.

    skypair
     
  9. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    Christ died for ALL sin of ALL people (OT saints included) so that ALL would one day be resurrected to stand before Him (Bema, MK, GWT).

    Christ did not die for UNBELIEF -- a sin of ommission which ALL know they need to do, Rom 1:19-20. It is possible to omit or commit many things in ignorance but this one is "inexcuseable!"

    Consensus opinion? I would hope so.

    skypair
     
    #249 skypair, Oct 18, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Oct 18, 2007
  10. Isaiah40:28

    Isaiah40:28 New Member

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    So how have you answered the question of why Jesus died for people who were already in hell?
    How have you answered what His death did for them?
     
  11. menageriekeeper

    menageriekeeper Active Member

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    Why do believe Christ's death had to anything for them?

    I see this as more about God showing us (as in those who came after the NT scriptures) His justice. A just God means all when He says all. He doesn't play mind games.
     
  12. skypair

    skypair Active Member

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    Oh, sorry. Thought I did.

    At the GWT, they too will receive sinless bodies. They'll be raised on account of Christ's payment for their sins of commission, too.

    And they will be judged like ALL out of the "book of works" -- have their "day in court," so to speak, before Christ, the Judge. I see the "book of works" somewhat ameliorating eternal spiritual suffering if the works were good. But then the "book of life" is opened and only those who had received Christ would be found written there. These will not be found and will experience the 2nd physical death in a real "lake of fire" and exist eternally is a spiritual state of suffering in darkness and alone.

    skypair
     
  13. Amy.G

    Amy.G New Member

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    I think you answered the what instead of the why.
     
  14. Isaiah40:28

    Isaiah40:28 New Member

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    Well since your eschatological beliefs are worlds away from mine, your explanations will not make any sense with my views.
    Thanks for the reply though.

    Actually some of your bolded statements might make interesting fodder for a new thread.
     
  15. Lou Martuneac

    Lou Martuneac New Member

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    Not a Difficult Question

    Rippon/npetreley:

    The 5 points of Calvinism are the foundation of Reformed theology. Various other issues flow from them, such as: the extra-biblical teaching that regeneration must precede faith; double-predestination, hyper-Calvinism; and the works based interpretation of the Gospel known as: Lordship Salvation.

    It is a simple, unambiguous question. Which of the five points of Calvinism do you reject?

    Total Inability; Unconditional Election; Limited Atonement; Irresistible Grace; Perseverance of the Saints

    Can we start with Calvinism's Limited Atonement? This point very closely identifies with the question of this thread.

    Do you believe and agree with Calvinism's Limited Atonement?

    I trust that you are not going to dodge this question.


    LM
     
    #255 Lou Martuneac, Oct 22, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: Oct 22, 2007
  16. Jarthur001

    Jarthur001 Active Member

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    Hello Lou...

    Please do not dodge this. :)

    If it be true that God loves every member of the human family, then why did our Lord tell His disciples

    "He that hath My commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth Me: and he that loveth Me shall be loved of My Father ... If a man love Me, he will keep My words: and My Father will love him." (John 14:21,23)?

    Why say "he that loveth Me shall be loved of My Father"? If the Father loves everybody?
     
  17. Jarthur001

    Jarthur001 Active Member

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    One more Lou,

    Proverbs 8:17 I love them that love me; and those that seek me early shall find me.

    What about those that do not love God?

    Or is this just vain words?
     
  18. Jarthur001

    Jarthur001 Active Member

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    Sorry....but I must post this.

    Psalm 5

    4For thou art not a God that hath pleasure in wickedness: neither shall evil dwell with thee.

    5The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: thou hatest all workers of iniquity.

    Now notice this if you will. :)

    This verse kinda shots wholes in all the "loves the sinner, but hates the sin"...does it not?

    It is the WORKERS not the WORK that is hated. The work would never happen if the worker had not worked. :)
     
  19. Jarthur001

    Jarthur001 Active Member

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    OOps...how about the NT??? :)

    This is to show that the God of the OT is the same in the NT. I have heard some say other wise.

    What does the words "wrath of God" mean to you?

    On the other hand we have....


    In this case "love never fails" means real love will never stop. :)
     
  20. Jarthur001

    Jarthur001 Active Member

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    One more and I will really stop this time. :)

    Heb 12..


    So what about those he gives up?

    Roms 1
    24 Therefore God also gave them up to uncleanness, in the lusts of their hearts, to dishonor their bodies among themselves,...........
     
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