I saw "The Man of La Mancha" on Broadway. It was tremendous.Don Q actually
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I saw "The Man of La Mancha" on Broadway. It was tremendous.Don Q actually
If, as you say you know Greek, you should know that in every case, there are "exceptions" to the so-called "rules" to the grammar. This is fact. contextually the use of the subjunctive by Jesus is "conditioned" on HEARING and BELIEVING.
so the whole "purpose" that Jesus Christ came into the world, is THAT these sinners MIGHT be saved. Are you saying that they could have been saved without following what Jesus says to them, HEAR and BELIEVE? This, my friend it the CONDITION that Jesus makes for their salvation.
can you not deal with the passage in question? If you are wrong, are you and the rest of the "Reformers/Calvinists" humble enough to admit this? If I am wrong, then show me where and then if proven from Scripture, I WILL admit it here on BB and change. Your arguments with my use of the Greek does NOT disprove anything.
As I have said before, they only see what they want to. They mock and argue that we don't understand the languages, and when presented with evidence from Greek scholars, they have no answer, but, instead of apology, they ignore the truth.
All from God Himself!Where does belief come from? Where does faith come from? Where does grace come from?
I would guess Reformed/Calvinists?Who are you accusing and of what?
All from God Himself!
I am so glad it is, would NOT want to see salvation as man woudl set it up as being!Indeed! Salvation is completely of the Lord.
There are some who admit that the Lord Jesus Christ "died" for the whole human race, in some special way, but deny that this equates to the actual Atonement that Jesus made through His death on the cross. This is no more than "splitting hairs", as the death of Jesus Christ IS His Atonement for the sins of the whole human race. I have also shown from 1 John 2:2, where John writes of Jesus, "He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.". Where, like its use in 1 John 5:19, the phrase "the whole world", contextually, can only refer to the unsaved, lost world. I have also shown from the use of Hebrew and Greek lexicons, that the Greek noun, "ἱλασμός", has the meaning "atonement", where it is used time and again in the LXX as an equivalent to the Hebrew, "כִּפֻּר", which basically means "atonement". This, some for theological purposes have rejected. These same people argue that the death of Jesus Christ was for the "non-elect", but only in the sense that they enjoy the same "blessings" as the "elect" do. When pressed as to what these "blessings" might be, they usually respond, by sharing in the temporal "blessings" of the rain, and sun-shine and food, etc, etc. As if these were not shared by the entire human race from creation! It has nothing to do with the death of Jesus Christ.
I will now show from John's Gospel, where in chapter 5 we read of Jesus' encounter with the Jews, who took offence to what He said and did, and wanted to murder Him for this. Thus we read in verse 16:
"And therefore did the Jews persecute Jesus, and sought to slay him, because he had done these things on the sabbath day"
The response of the Jews to Jesus healing a man on the Sabbath Day. Jesus responds to them;
"My Father works still, and I work" (verse 17)
Which further enraged the Jews, as Jesus here claims a special relationship with Yahweh, and Deity, to which we read;
"Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God" (verse 18)
Again the Jews response was to murder the Lord Jesus Christ. Now, the words that follow, are directly addressed to these same Jews, who were bent on murdering Jesus. We read in verse 19;
"Then answered Jesus and said unto THEM..."
So to these murdering Jews, the Lord Jesus says:
"Verily, verily, I say unto YOU, He that hears My word, and believes on Him that sent me, has everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life. Verily, verily, I say unto YOU, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live." (verses 24-25)
All of this was spoken to these same Jews. Note what Jesus says to THEM. If you "hear My word", and "believe on Him (the Father), WILL have eternal life. It is clear from Jesus' own words, that ALL (not some) of these Jews, had the capability to HEAR and BELIEVE in their sinful, lost state. "They that HEAR shall LIVE". Which means that these Jews, according the the Lord Jesus, were NOT "dead" in the sense that some argue, that the are not ABLE to respond one way or another, to His Words. This is what God Incarnate is saying, and not me or some theology.
Also, to these SAME murdering Jews, Jesus tells them this;
"but these things I say that YOU might be saved" (verse 34)
We have the use of the Greek conjunction, "ἵνα", which means, that everything that Jesus had told these Jews, from the beginning of this chapter, was "in order that", they MIGHT BE SAVED. Notice the use of "σωθῆτε", which is in the Greek subjunctive mood, indicating "condition", that these Jews, like the rest of lost sinners, MIGHT be saved (not WILL), the condition being, they had to HEAR and BELIEVE, and ONLY then could they be SAVED.
Yes, Jesus not only DIED for these murdering Jews, but also wanted them to REPENT and BELIEVE in Him and be SAVED.
Further, Jesus goes on to say to these same Jews:
"Search the Scriptures; for in them you think you have eternal life: and they are they which testify of Me. And you will not come to Me, that you might have life."
These Jews were not WILLING of themselves to HEAR and BELIEVE, so that THEY could enjoy ETERNAL LIFE. Not as some would pervert these words, so that they mean, they COULD not COME to Jesus, because the Holy Spirit had not thus enabled them! This is no more than theological twisting of what the Word of God actually says.
His death secures for the lost/unsaved "blessings" in this present world, as in the wrath of god has been averted for now, there is some material and physical enjoyment by them, and does get them an eternal resurrected body!I am of the persuasion that Christ's death for all sinners does one of two things for them. Secure the saved and greater damn the lost.
". . . He shall baptize you in the Holy Spirit and in fire: whose fan is in his hand, and he will thoroughly cleanse his threshing-floor; and he will gather his wheat into the garner, but the chaff he will burn up with unquenchable fire.. . ." Matthew 3:11-12. Note the ". . . you . . ." is plural and refers to both saved and lost.
". . . For to this end Christ died and lived again, that He might be Lord of both the dead and the living.. . ." -- Romans 14:9. Note ". . . the dead and the living . . ." being understood as the lost and the saved. See v.11.
". . . But thou, why dost thou judge thy brother? or thou again, why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment-seat of God. For it is written, As I live, saith the Lord, to me every knee shall bow, And every tongue shall confess to God. So then each one of us shall give account of himself to God. . . ." -- Romans 14:10-12.
Note v10 & 12 refers to us believers. But note v.11, ". . . every knee shall bow. and every tongue shall confess . . .: " can be understood to refer to all the lost and the saved. Re: v.9
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I am of the persuasion that Christ's death for all sinners does one of two things for them. Secure the saved and greater damn the lost.
from 1 John 2:2 said:those of[/I] the whole world.". Where, like its use in 1 John 5:19, the phrase "the whole world", contextually, can only refer to the unsaved, lost world.
"Love not the world".
You pick the word 'world' out of the Bile and say it means something?
In the context you mention, 'the world', means 'the world of Jews and Gentiles'.
Noone would be Saved if God Did Not Elect some, Jesus Died for those The Father Gave Him and The Holy Spirit Made them Alive, under the Preaching of The Gospel.
Jesus Died for the sins of His people, according to Matthew 1:21.
Did everyone already kick this blaspheme into next week?
His death secures for the lost/unsaved "blessings" in this present world
as in the wrath of god has been averted for now
there is some material and physical enjoyment by them,
and does get them an eternal resurrected body!