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You are answering a question with a question.You actually think this is a legitimate comparison?
You are answering a question with a question.
Obviously it is a legitimate comparison. There are two recognized ordinances within the Baptist movement, (1) baptism and (2) communion (aka Lord's Supper).
Historically, some of the earliest Baptists were baptized by pouring, but have been quite consistent in believer's baptism by immersion for the last 400 years.
Now the OP references a North Texas church that accepts the baptism of believers using a different mode (although not the meaning) ,and that has raised some opposition in this thread.
Until the Temperance Movement (later taking a prohibitionist stance) moved through the United States, Baptists - like all Christian denominations - used wine in communion.
But Dr. Thomas Bramwell Welch successfully pasteurized Concord grape juice to produce an “unfermented sacramental wine” for fellow church parishioners in Vineland, New Jersey in 1869, and it because a way to avoid accusations of hypocrisy when many Baptist churches decided to engage in the Temperance Movement by changing the mode of their celebration of the Lord's Supper without changing the meaning. In fact, some Baptists went so far as to reinterpret the Bible to make it conform to their prohibitionist beliefs.
So why isn't it a valid comparison? The issue is one of changing the mode of baptism without undermining believer's baptism.
Not sure that I follow you on that first part. Are you saying the apostles practiced affusion, which was changed by the Ante-Nicene Fathers to immersion, which was later changed back to the scriptural mode of affusion by the Roman Catholic Church?The Ante-Nicene Church Fathers typically baptized by immersion, but the Roman Catholic Church decided that the sacrament of water baptism should be performed scripturally...
For a detailed scriptural defense of affusion rather than immersion, please see here:
http://www.imarc.cc/baptize/waswift.html
Right. Like when I disagreed with you and you failed to fully understand a word I used in my disagreement and you expressed that failure to understand so I posted the dictionary meaning as I was using the word and your "truthful" response wasAs I have posted before, nothing, absolutely nothing is more important to me than the truth
Sorry Craig by the sea, you are no longer by the sea. You are out to sea. Way over your head. When you are bested in a debate you respond in childish anger and call your opponent names and besmirch his Christian character. You resort to ad hominem belittling those who disagree with you.I know how Cassidy used the word in his post—and that use was malicious, slanderous, and sinful to the core.
And neither do any of the other posters participating in this thread. We don't know the meaning of βαπτίζω and the proper mode of baptism because we are baptists. We are baptists because we know the proper meaning of βαπτίζω and understand the proper mode of baptism!I do not presume to know the proper meaning of the word βαπτίζω just because I am a Baptist; and I do not presume to know the proper mode of baptism just because I am a Baptist.
I take it that you believe that Romans 6:1-4 is actually talking about the ritual of immersion (aka "baptism"), not about being immersed in sin and then into Christ's death where we can be raised into a life that overcomes sin and death:First, you cannot change the mode without undermining the nature of Baptism. Sprinkling and pouring water fail to paint a picture of the burial.
The two ordinances are being symbols of being united with Christ and engaging in the fellowship of new life. That's not "completely different."Further, they have a completely different intent.
I would disagree about that. Baptism is more than simply acting out a picture of death, burial and resurrection... that is actually incidental to the nature and meaning of baptism. Baptism is about being made new, clean, and being born from above.
The two ordinances are being symbols of being united with Christ and engaging in the fellowship of new life. That's not "completely different."
Not sure that I follow you on that first part. Are you saying the apostles practiced affusion, which was changed by the Ante-Nicene Fathers to immersion, which was later changed back to the scriptural mode of affusion by the Roman Catholic Church?
Swift in the first paragraph cites "In the earliest Latin versions of the New Testament...the Greek verb baptizo is uniformly given in the Latin formbaptizo, and is never translated byimmergoor any like word" as proof "that there was something in the rite of baptism to which the latter [immersion] did not correspond." While thatcouldbe true, all it is proof of is that the early Latin translations transliterated a Greek word rather than translating it (just like we have done in English). He also seems to deny ritual immersion is any part of Jewish tradition and replaces it with sprinkling only.
Who told you that, and why did you believe them?The intent of sprinkling and the intent of immersion are completely different.
Tertullian uses the Latin word Tingo which means to 'dip' or 'soak.' He does this many times, but one example will suffice, I hope. Quoting Romans 6:3, he writes, An ignoratis quod quicunque in Christum Jesum tincti sumus, in mortem eius tincti sumus.' [On the Resurrection of the Body, ch. 47]Swift in the first paragraph cites "In the earliest Latin versions of the New Testament...the Greek verb baptizo is uniformly given in the Latin form baptizo, and is never translated by immergo or any like word" as proof "that there was something in the rite of baptism to which the latter [immersion] did not correspond."
Some OT purifications were sprinklings, some involved pouring and others were washings. If we look at the consecration of Aaron and his sons in Leviticus 8, we can find all three methods being used. The briefest flick though Leviticus 15 will reveal numerous requirements to wash ones clothes and bathe in water. If one looks at the NKJV centre column reference for Hebrews 9:10, one finds Numbers 19:7: ‘Then the priest shall wash his clothes, he shall bathe in water, and afterward he shall come into the camp.’ A sprinkling? I don’t think so! In Hebrews 9:10, the Apostle is referring to washing by immersion (Gk. Baptizo); in Hebrews 9:13, he is referring to sprinklings (Gk. Rantizo). How do we know? Because he tells us. That is why he uses two different words and that is what his language signifies.He also seems to deny ritual immersion is any part of Jewish tradition and replaces it with sprinkling only.
Yes, I agree.I don't disagree with this. Baptism is not just acting out anything but saying I identify with Christ, just as His old man was buried so is my old man. Just as He was resurrected new so are we. It is a confession of our identity with Christ and our commitment to walk new.
Please forgive my ignorance, but what is the difference between "the intent" of sprinkling versus immersion? As described in the OP, we are talking about believer's baptism in both instances, so I don't know what you mean when you are calling out a difference in intent.The intent of sprinkling and the intent of immersion are completely different.
When do you think it did that?No, I am simply saying that the Roman Catholic Church decided to leave behind the practice of the large majority of the Ante-Nicene Church Fathers of baptism by immersion in favor of the more Scriptural practice of baptism by affusion.
Yes, I agree.
Please forgive my ignorance, but what is the difference between "the intent" of sprinkling versus immersion? As described in the OP, we are talking about believer's baptism in both instances, so I don't know what you mean when you are calling out a difference in intent.
I take showers, does that mean I have not been bathed?
If I get in the shower or jump in a pool with my cloths on, do they not get wet?
When I visit the grave of a person not yet covered (boxed or un-boxed) , and they begin to put the dirt in, is it all put in at the same exact moment, or "sprinkled" in with each bucket and shovel full?
What if a person being "immersed" isn't completely covered but some part remained out of the pool water, did that defile the baptism? Silly, I know, but there are churches who believe it to be so.
Is it that inconsistent to the intent of Scriptures, which place nothing of grace or anointing upon one baptized that it remain a public symbol, for one to be baptized with a sprinkling can or an ocean?
The church (Baptist included) need to be far more concerned with the changed life lived than the symbol of baptism. For what good is baptism of any sort if there is not that changed life lived!
It is also remarkable that preachers and teachers will also quote and cite authorities that were not immersed but sprinkled and yet would deny that person membership over a "symbol."
Sometimes I think the vociferous cymbal becomes the focus rather than the symbol.
Sprinkling is used with the intent to administer grace that one may be saved. Immersion is used as a symbolic confession of our identity with Christ. I am actually kind of puzzled at this question you asked. I hope this helps.
Nothing about this post is true or helpful.
The administering of sprinkling is done with the intent to administer the grace of God in salvation. Such is unscriptural and in fact heretical.
There is no argument that baptism by immersion presents such a picture IF the public understand that presentation.Being baptized by immersion creates the symbolic picture of the death, burial, and resurrections of Jesus. It is our opportunity to publically say that we identify with Jesus in this and we are children of God.
The mode and intent of each are far different. As baptists this is a key issue. If you do not support Baptism by immersion you are in fact not Baptist.