Featured praying = speaking to God

When we address God it regarded as Pray only because we are CONSCIOUSLY addressing God. Paul condemns praying in tongues or attempting to address God without comprehension of what you are saying as it is no prayer at all on your part but pure gibberish.

 

You have got to be kidding??? Look at the verse! It says "For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.

Stammering lips AND another tongue are what God uses to speak TO THIS PEOPLE! Not just stammering lips but also with "another tongue" GOD SPEAKS TO THIS PEOPLE. It is not the tongue speakers speaking TO GOD but God using these tongue speakers to SPEAK TO THIS PEOPLE. Hence, tongues are used by God for God to speak to people - this people - the Jews and that is why it is not a sign for believers or for personal use by believers unless it is accompanied with conscious understanding.

 

You cannot separate "stammering lips" from "another tongue" as the text says BOTH are used by God for God TO SPEAK TO THIS PEOPLE. Both are used to speak about the rest in verse 12.

Paul interprets this to mean it is a "sign" to the Jewish people concerning the promised "rest" or proof that the Messiah has come.

12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.


Jesus said "Come unto me all ye that are burdened and heaven laden and I WILL GIVE YOU REST"

Verse 16 spells this out to be the Messiah in unmistakenable words:

16 Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste.

Verse 12 says they will not believe although verse 16 calls on them to believe.

They took it as a "sign" because THREE TIMES they repeated these were common Jews with no education and yet they are speaking in known dialects all over the world.

False! Those on Pentecost UNDERSTOOD what was said and the "sign" was the fact that they knew those speaking could not have done it naturally.

False! in that text he speaking of "unlearned" unbelievers or Gentiles who had no knowlege of the scriptures as did the Jews and would not think anything but those speaking were just as crazy as those who spoke in esctatic utterances in all their pagan temples.

 

No I deagree with your false intepretation of Paul's words as you just jerk his words out of context and make them fit to support your esctatic utterances.

 

He was speaking to the church. The person in the church was praying aloud (in the spirit also). And it had to be interpreted. All had to know when to say Amen.

Of course, even speaking in an audible voice in prayer is still speaking to God. Don't people in your church lead in prayer in your services??

We all do that. It is silent prayer. It doesn't require tongues.

Context! In the first century only!

Only when there is no interpreter do you pray for an interpreter. That would be in extreme cases, unless you were an apostle like Paul, who had all the gifts. Speaking in tongues is not speaking to God in all cases. It is a revelatory gift for the edification of the people. It was prophecy given in another language. 1Cor.14 indicates that very clearly. That is why there is such a contrast, and that is why he said, "I would rather that you prophesy." Prophesying had understanding, but doing the same thing, giving the same message in tongues didn't have any understanding. Therefore don't do it.

 

My post, way back on page two, says that you can't answer it.
A no is a no. You don't understand that.

 

"THIS PEOPLE" and their rulers who are "IN JERUSALEM" is not the world! This is a sign to the Jews of their own promised coming Messiah signifying He has come! Nothing is plainer! Your twist, pervert, and fabricrate the scriptures to say exactly opposite or contrary to what they say. This is not a sign to the UNBELEIVIN WORLD but to JEWISH NATION and the context is clear.

 

I said "YOUR" esctatic utterances. In other words I don't believe you have the Biblical gift of tongues that Paul spoke about. I believe "YOUR" utterances are the plain ordinary common varieity that is found in most religions long before Paul wrote this letter which are nothing more than ecstatic utterances.

 

To who? yourself and like minded?

 

Awaken,
Is this what you speak:

 

Do you believe that you can sing in tongues and "speak" in tongues in addition to "pray" in tongues? If so, then you cannot say with Biblical authority that "tongues is praying" but only that tongues can be in a form of addressing God, which Paul condemns without comprehension.

Moreover, "tongues" is by designed God speaking to "this people" as that is precisely what Isaiah 28:11 says and thus you cannot say with Biblical authority that "tongues is...speaking to God"


Isa. 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.

1 Cor. 14:21 ¶ In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.

The language is simple and straight forward and yet you contradict it by your restrictive application of tongues to God only. That is not what God says and that is not what God's Word says.

 

Oh please don't be such a hypocrit and play the martyr. YOU are the one that said it had been confirmed did you not! I simply questioned to whom it had been confirmed, only you and those like minded! That is hardly any attack on your personal walk with God!

I find that when people like you can't respond to the issues they start playing the martry and claim they are being personally attacked. Please put aside this hypocritical pretense and stick with the discussion. It is reasonable to question the basis of a professed confirmation and that is precisely what I did.

 

You want to start answering issues? How about the above one? How about the fact that you never responded to the use of "allos" versus "heteros" in my response to your total abuse of it in 1 Cor. 12:7-11. How about your failure to respond to my post on 1 Cor. 12:29-30 and your imaginary interperetation that Paul was distinguishing between manifestations to the SAME PERSONS at various times. NOne of these you have answered!