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Featured Three days and three nights

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by rstrats, Oct 23, 2012.

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  1. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    When torn between garbage and Holy Spirit, I never hesitate to pick wisdom;

    Jesus rose the THIRD days, in THREE DAYS, after THREE DAYS and THREE nights

    Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS
     
  2. Gerhard Ebersoehn

    Gerhard Ebersoehn Active Member
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    Vooks inspired, where did you get written, your wisdom, "~after THREE DAYS and THREE nights~", and how do you get your arithmetic, "~Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS~"?

    Miracles do happen which is neither of inspiration or wisdom. What must it be then since you left yourself a choice "~between garbage and Holy Spirit (and) wisdom~"?
     
  3. Gerhard Ebersoehn

    Gerhard Ebersoehn Active Member
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    Vooks inspired, where did you get written, your wisdom, "~after THREE DAYS and THREE nights~", and how do you get your arithmetic, "~Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS~"?

    Miracles do happen which is neither of inspiration or wisdom. What must it be then since you left yourself a choice "~between garbage and Holy Spirit (and) wisdom~"?
     
  4. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,

    re: "The answer is simple; Three phrases capture the duration of Jesus' death; (a) Three days (b) Third day (c)Three days and three nights"

    OK, I guess you think that you are answering my question, even though none of it (your answer) is applicable. It doesn't show examples where a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred. BTW, you left out (d) "After three days" and possibly (e) "Third day since".



    re: "To understand the duration of our Lord's death which is the crux of your post..."

    Actually, the crux of my post is to find if it was common to say that a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred.

    And again, as I've stated several times, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. If you wish to do that, perhaps you could start a new topic.
     
    #264 rstrats, Feb 11, 2016
    Last edited: Feb 11, 2016
  5. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    To answer your question,
    I trust that you are posting in a Baptist forum because this is a biblical question and not soccer.

    Could you give me a biblical example where 'a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event'?

    Thank you
     
  6. Hark

    Hark Well-Known Member

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    So you do not know about the sabbath days that are not the seventh day sabbath yet?

    I dare you to ask your teachers. I already provided the scripture, but you ignored that.
     
  7. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,

    re: "I trust that you are posting in a Baptist forum because this is a biblical question..."

    Your trust is well founded because I am and it is.

    re: "Could you give me a biblical example where 'a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event'?"

    Matthew 12:40.

    Now I ask you for the 6th (?) time, What does any of what you have been posting have to do with providing examples which show a daytime and/or a night time being forecast for an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred?
     
  8. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    Your question is highly ambiguous and borders on nonsensical.

    Matthew 12:40 (KJV)
    For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.


    Explain how Matthew 12:40 provides 'examples which show a daytime and/or a night time being forecast for an event'

    please do this and we will take it up from there
     
  9. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,

    re: "Your question is highly ambiguous..."

    How so?



    re: "...and borders on nonsensical."

    It's perfectly 'sensical' to ask someone who says that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language to support their assertion by providing examples of such common usage.



    re: "Explain how Matthew 12:40 provides 'examples which show a daytime and/or a night time being forecast for an event"

    The Messiah said/forecast/ prophesied that He would be 3 days and 3 nights in the "heart of the earth". The event was the spending of time in the heart of the earth.




    re: "please do this and we will take it up from there"

    Actually we won't unless it is to thank you for showing instances where a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred.
     
  10. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?

    What part of 12:40 is said to be idiomatic?
     
  11. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,

    re: "HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?"

    I don't know. That's why I started this topic.


    re: "What part of 12:40 is said to be idiomatic?"

    Actually the whole of it but especially the part that says that three nights would be involved.
     
  12. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    You are not answering the question. And this dithering is why 14 pages later you are nowhere. See if you are going to attempt to solve a problem or seek solutions, you must unambiguously define it first.

    How is 'that part that says that three nights would be involved' idiomatic?
     
    #272 vooks, Feb 12, 2016
    Last edited: Feb 12, 2016
  13. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,

    re: "So how is 'that part that says that three nights would be involved' idiomatic?"

    What else could it be if you say that the Messiah died on the afternoon of the 6th day of the week and resurrected on the 1st day of the week?
     
  14. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,

    re: "You are not answering the question."

    Sure I am. You asked "HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?" I don't know how someone can say that the usage was common unless they know of other instances where the same usage was employed. I'm simply asking to see those other examples since I'm not aware of any.
     
  15. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    Ok. So your reasoning is 'three days and three nights' can't be anything but an idiom if Jesus died on Friday afternoon and rose on Sunday?
     
    #275 vooks, Feb 12, 2016
    Last edited: Feb 12, 2016
  16. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    You are not answering the question and this is why you are not getting nowhere.

    Is your problem the claim that there is an idiom in Matthew 12:40 or the claim that the idiom is common, or both?
     
  17. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,

    re: "Ok. So your problem is how three days and three nights can fit between Friday afternoon and Sunday?"

    No, not for the purpose of this topic.
     
  18. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    I have rephrased the question. Answer it

    you think Matthew 12:40 can only have been an idiom if Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday?
     
  19. rstrats

    rstrats Member
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    vooks,
    re: "you think Matthew 12:40 can only have been an idiom if Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday?"

    No.
     
  20. vooks

    vooks Active Member

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    Why are you contradicting yourself? You are insincere. Just as with the 3-day and 6-day question. You quickly reversed yourself to save your theological bubble from bursting.

    Look at the question I posed and the highlighted part of your response.
     
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