Three days and three nights

[vooks]

How wrong you are after all these discussions about "~the crux~" of my "~understand(ing) the duration of our Lord's death~" : AGAIN!


I do not say or believe and never argued “~the duration of our Lord's death~” was “~(a) Three days~”,

or,

“~(b) Third day~”,

or,

“~(c) Three days and three nights~”


Jesus died “the ninth hour”—3 p.m. “on the first day they always had to kill the passover”; was buried “That Day (which) was The Preparation” from “when it had become evening” : “the first night” : “solemnly to be observed” but never observed because of Jesus’ death “That Night” in which Joseph had undertaken “to bury the body of Jesus to the Jews’ ethics-Law” the books of Moses on the Passover of Yahweh, to, or, until, “That Day had been The Preparation and the Sabbath was nearing mid-afternoon”; and rose from the dead “Late on the Sabbath as the First Day of the week was beginning to dawn in the mid-afternoon daylight on Sabbath Day inclining towards the First Day of the week”—3 p.m.. Which gives Jesus in dead status exactly 2 x 24 hours = 48 hours over three days within which He was crucified and died on the first day; was buried on the middle, second day; and rose on the third and last of the “three days” of the God-given and therefore eschatological imperative WHOLE AND WHOLENESS of the “three days and three nights” of these “three days”, “on the third day” of which “CHRIST ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES ROSE FROM THE DEAD”.

When torn between garbage and Holy Spirit, I never hesitate to pick wisdom;

Jesus rose the THIRD days, in THREE DAYS, after THREE DAYS and THREE nights

Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

When torn between garbage and Holy Spirit, I never hesitate to pick wisdom;

Jesus rose the THIRD days, in THREE DAYS, after THREE DAYS and THREE nights

Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS

Vooks inspired, where did you get written, your wisdom, "~after THREE DAYS and THREE nights~", and how do you get your arithmetic, "~Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS~"?

Miracles do happen which is neither of inspiration or wisdom. What must it be then since you left yourself a choice "~between garbage and Holy Spirit (and) wisdom~"?

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

When torn between garbage and Holy Spirit, I never hesitate to pick wisdom;

Jesus rose the THIRD days, in THREE DAYS, after THREE DAYS and THREE nights

Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS

Vooks inspired, where did you get written, your wisdom, "~after THREE DAYS and THREE nights~", and how do you get your arithmetic, "~Therefore, THREE DAYS= THIRD DAY = THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS~"?

Miracles do happen which is neither of inspiration or wisdom. What must it be then since you left yourself a choice "~between garbage and Holy Spirit (and) wisdom~"?

 

[rstrats]

vooks,

re: "The answer is simple; Three phrases capture the duration of Jesus' death; (a) Three days (b) Third day (c)Three days and three nights"

OK, I guess you think that you are answering my question, even though none of it (your answer) is applicable. It doesn't show examples where a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred. BTW, you left out (d) "After three days" and possibly (e) "Third day since".



re: "To understand the duration of our Lord's death which is the crux of your post..."

Actually, the crux of my post is to find if it was common to say that a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred.

And again, as I've stated several times, the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. If you wish to do that, perhaps you could start a new topic.

 

[vooks]

Actually, the crux of my post is to find if it was common to say that a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred.

To answer your question,
I trust that you are posting in a Baptist forum because this is a biblical question and not soccer.

Could you give me a biblical example where 'a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event'?

Thank you

 

[Hark]

Re:
"~what if the sabbath day that was coming was not the seventh day of rest sabbath day from which we count the three days and three nights with?~" --- "~...from which we count the three days and three nights with?~"

Just who, is your "~we~", the "~we~" who "~count the three days and three nights ... from ... the seventh day of rest sabbath day~"?

That's you, Hark; no Scripture.

So you do not know about the sabbath days that are not the seventh day sabbath yet?

I dare you to ask your teachers. I already provided the scripture, but you ignored that.

 

[rstrats]

vooks,

re: "I trust that you are posting in a Baptist forum because this is a biblical question..."

Your trust is well founded because I am and it is.

re: "Could you give me a biblical example where 'a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event'?"

Matthew 12:40.

Now I ask you for the 6th (?) time, What does any of what you have been posting have to do with providing examples which show a daytime and/or a night time being forecast for an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred?

 

[vooks]

vooks,

re: "I trust that you are posting in a Baptist forum because this is a biblical question..."

Your trust is well founded because I am and it is.

re: "Could you give me a biblical example where 'a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event'?"

Matthew 12:40.

Your question is highly ambiguous and borders on nonsensical.

Matthew 12:40 (KJV)
For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Explain how Matthew 12:40 provides 'examples which show a daytime and/or a night time being forecast for an event'

please do this and we will take it up from there

 

[rstrats]

vooks,

re: "Your question is highly ambiguous..."

How so?



re: "...and borders on nonsensical."

It's perfectly 'sensical' to ask someone who says that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language to support their assertion by providing examples of such common usage.



re: "Explain how Matthew 12:40 provides 'examples which show a daytime and/or a night time being forecast for an event"

The Messiah said/forecast/ prophesied that He would be 3 days and 3 nights in the "heart of the earth". The event was the spending of time in the heart of the earth.




re: "please do this and we will take it up from there"

Actually we won't unless it is to thank you for showing instances where a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred.

 

[vooks]

vooks,

re: "Your question is highly ambiguous..."

How so?



re: "...and borders on nonsensical."

It's perfectly 'sensical' to ask someone who says that Matthew 12:40 is using common idiomatic language to support their assertion by providing examples of such common usage.



re: "Explain how Matthew 12:40 provides 'examples which show a daytime and/or a night time being forecast for an event"

The Messiah said/forecast/ prophesied that He would be 3 days and 3 nights in the "heart of the earth". The event was the spending of time in the heart of the earth.




re: "please do this and we will take it up from there"

Actually we won't unless it is to thank you for showing instances where a daytime and/or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred.

HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?

What part of 12:40 is said to be idiomatic?

 

[rstrats]

vooks,

re: "HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?"

I don't know. That's why I started this topic.


re: "What part of 12:40 is said to be idiomatic?"

Actually the whole of it but especially the part that says that three nights would be involved.

 

[vooks]

vooks,

re: "HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?"

I don't know. That's why I started this topic.


re: "What part of 12:40 is said to be idiomatic?"

Actually the whole of it but especially the part that says that three nights would be involved.

You are not answering the question. And this dithering is why 14 pages later you are nowhere. See if you are going to attempt to solve a problem or seek solutions, you must unambiguously define it first.

How is 'that part that says that three nights would be involved' idiomatic?

 

[rstrats]

vooks,

re: "So how is 'that part that says that three nights would be involved' idiomatic?"

What else could it be if you say that the Messiah died on the afternoon of the 6th day of the week and resurrected on the 1st day of the week?

 

[rstrats]

vooks,

re: "You are not answering the question."

Sure I am. You asked "HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?" I don't know how someone can say that the usage was common unless they know of other instances where the same usage was employed. I'm simply asking to see those other examples since I'm not aware of any.

 

[vooks]

vooks,

re: "So how is 'that part that says that three nights would be involved' idiomatic?"

What else could it be if you say that the Messiah died on the afternoon of the 6th day of the week and resurrected on the 1st day of the week?

Ok. So your reasoning is 'three days and three nights' can't be anything but an idiom if Jesus died on Friday afternoon and rose on Sunday?

 

[vooks]

vooks,

re: "You are not answering the question."

Sure I am. You asked "HOW is the Matthew 12:40 said to employ 'common idiomatic language'?" I don't know how someone can say that the usage was common unless they know of other instances where the same usage was employed. I'm simply asking to see those other examples since I'm not aware of any.

You are not answering the question and this is why you are not getting nowhere.

Is your problem the claim that there is an idiom in Matthew 12:40 or the claim that the idiom is common, or both?

 

[rstrats]

vooks,

re: "Ok. So your problem is how three days and three nights can fit between Friday afternoon and Sunday?"

No, not for the purpose of this topic.

 

[vooks]

vooks,

re: "Ok. So your problem is how three days and three nights can fit between Friday afternoon and Sunday?"

No, not for the purpose of this topic.

I have rephrased the question. Answer it

you think Matthew 12:40 can only have been an idiom if Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday?

 

[rstrats]

vooks,
re: "you think Matthew 12:40 can only have been an idiom if Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday?"

No.

 

[vooks]

vooks,
re: "you think Matthew 12:40 can only have been an idiom if Jesus died on Friday and resurrected on Sunday?"

No.

Why are you contradicting yourself? You are insincere. Just as with the 3-day and 6-day question. You quickly reversed yourself to save your theological bubble from bursting.

Look at the question I posed and the highlighted part of your response.

vooks,

re: "So how is 'that part that says that three nights would be involved' idiomatic?"

What else could it be if you say that the Messiah died on the afternoon of the 6th day of the week and resurrected on the 1st day of the week?