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Featured Two principle NT issues.

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by 37818, Mar 1, 2020.

  1. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    #81 Origen, Mar 3, 2020
    Last edited: Mar 3, 2020
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  2. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    Yes.

    It has been "glitchy" recently. I think they are updating.

    Manuscript GA 03 - CSNTM

    You can also view other manuscripts from this website.



    Sent from my SM-G965U using Tapatalk
     
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  3. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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  4. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known. (NET)

    Rather than justify the version we like, why not just dodge it? :)
     
  5. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    The NET bible takes θεός to be in apposition μονογενής and ὁ ὤν to be apposition to θεός. Thus there are three descriptions of Jesus\Logos not two.

    The Logos\Jesus is:
    (1) the only one\unique one\only begotten
    (2) who is Himself God (see John 1:1 "was fully God")
    (3) the one who is in closest fellowship with the Father (see John 1:1 ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν = "the Word was with God")

    The ESV understands it as two descriptions: "(1) the only God, (2) who is at the Father’s side."
     
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  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The issue is whether the origianal reading is "God" or "Son."
    Now there is what I understand a common reading which is represented by most manuscripts and accross manuscript types. I believe it is called the constant witness. Now the variant "God" or "Son" is not do to unintentional change, but is an intentional one. The constant witness is deemed 100%. The "God" reading is 00.4%. The "Son" reading is 99.6%.

    Now what does it mean if the oringianal reading is "No man hath seen God at any time; the unique God, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."
     
  7. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    @Origen,

    Thank you. I believe my NA is 26. And I have not had the time to check it. Away from home it is not handy. I was using f35 GNT (pdf) by Dr Wilber N. Pickering. No manuscripts are cited later than the 5th century. W is a 5th century ms. And it likely cited for no other reason, not that the reading is 5th century.
     
  8. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    With Jesus being called the μονογενης θεος here, it is arguably the strongest verse of Jesus' diety in light of the context of chapter 1. It also echos what John said in 1:1.

    Jesus is the μονογενης God. Not only is He unique among all that walks on earth, but He is even unique among the Godhead.

    There is absolutely no one like the μονογενης. Not even God the Father or God the Spirit. Once Jesus became fully man and fully God he became μονογενης.

    Sent from my SM-G965U using Tapatalk
     
  9. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    I thought I would summarize the evidence thus far for John 1:18.

    I μονογενὴς θεός
    (1) Seven manuscripts have μονογενὴς θεός (with or without the article).

    (2) Of the seven only two (i.e. 33 and L) date after the 5th century.
    p66 - ca 200
    p75 - ca 300
    ℵ* - 4th
    B - 4th
    C - 5th

    (3) In the Greek manuscripts tradition μονογενὴς θεός is the earliest reading.

    (4) The Peshitta has "only-begotten God."

    (5) Both μονογενὴς θεός and μονογενὴς υἱός find early and wide support in the Church fathers.

    (6) In addition μονογενὴς θεός is also support by the Sahidic version (i.e. Coptic) and the Ethiopic version.

    II μονογενὴς υἱός
    (1) The vast majority of Greek manuscripts have μονογενὴς υἱός.

    (2) This reading is supported by the Latin text.

    (3) The earliest Greek manuscript to support μονογενὴς υἱός is A (5th century).

    (4) W dates to the 5th century but the section containing John 1:18 dates to the 7th.

    (5) As stated above both μονογενὴς θεός and μονογενὴς υἱός find early and wide support in the Church fathers.
     
    #89 Origen, Mar 4, 2020
    Last edited: Mar 4, 2020
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  10. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    I could not agree more. As I point out in post 85 (in regard to the NET Bible translation):

    The Logos\Jesus is:
    (1) the only one\unique one\only begotten
    (2) who is Himself God (see John 1:1 "was fully God")
    (3) the one who is in closest fellowship with the Father (see John 1:1 ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν = "the Word was with God")

    I believe the thought and content is parallel with John 1:1.
     
    #90 Origen, Mar 4, 2020
    Last edited: Mar 4, 2020
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  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Did you mean "after" or "at or before?"
     
  12. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    You got me.:Whistling I changed it. Thank you.

    "Of the seven only two (i.e. 33 and L) date after the 5th century."
     
    #92 Origen, Mar 4, 2020
    Last edited: Mar 4, 2020
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  13. Garrett20

    Garrett20 Member

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    Origen, thank you for summarizing! Yes both readings are ancient for sure. I prefer ‘Son’ but I see extensive support for ‘God’ also. Both statements are true. Lord Bless
     
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  14. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    Thank you very much. I made some updates to the information. I am trying to be as thorough as possible. However I must point out the information provided is not exhaustive by any means.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Check our thread concerning if should be translated as Only begotten , or unique, one of a kind...
     
  16. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    this threads reminded me of the one concerning only begotten or as unique, as saw either was valid, and in same fashion, agree with you that either term chosen here would be valid also!
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    This post reminds me that some posters deny monogenes means unique or one of a kind, and never means begotten. Begotten is a mistranslation from the Latin.
    Returning to thread topic why do several translations of John 1:18 leave out the third description of Logos/Jesus?
     
  18. Origen

    Origen Active Member

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    Would you please clarify the above statement for me? Thank you.
     
    #98 Origen, Mar 4, 2020
    Last edited: Mar 4, 2020
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Maybe it die to those evil "western" texts monks changing the meaning might be his answer!
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Actually, either Son or God can be used in that passage being discussed!
     
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